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[2005] ZACC 10
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S v Basson (CCT30/03A) [2005] ZACC 10; 2005 (12) BCLR 1192 (CC); 2007 (3) SA 582 (CC); 2007 (1) SACR 566 (CC) (9 September 2005)
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CONSTITUTIONAL
COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
Case CCT
30/03
THE STATE
versus
BASSON
Heard on : 21 â 25
February 2005
Decided on : 9
September 2005
JUDGMENT
INDEX
INTRODUCTION para
1
Background
to the three issues raised
in
this Court para 3
(a) Bias para
3
(b) The
admissibility of the bail record para 6
(c) The
quashing of the charges para 13
I BIAS OF THE TRIAL
JUDGE para 19
(a) Bias
in February 2000 or at the end of the day? para 20
(b) The
legal test for bias para 23
(c) Alleged
specific manifestations of bias para 38
(i) Remarks
and interventions by the judge para 41
(aa) The
state was conducting âtrial by ambushâ para 45
(bb) The
judge was âboredâ by the stateâs evidence para 46
(cc) Counsel
for the state was âconfusedâ para 48
(dd) The
comment concerning state counselâs ego para 49
(ee) Laughter
about Asset Forfeiture application para 50
(ff) Judgeâs
comments concerning General
Knobelâs evidence para 52
(gg) Comment
concerning witnessâs sympathy for
the
accused para 55
(hh) Remarks
concerning âProject Coastâ para 58
(ii) Judgeâs
conduct during cross-examination of
Dr
Basson para 65
(jj) Assessment
of these challenges para 66
(ii) Mistaken
legal rulings and findings of fact para 69
(aa) Attorney-client
privilege para 72
(bb) Refusal
to call three further witnesses para 74
(cc) Implausibility
of Dr Bassonâs evidence para 80
(dd) Judgeâs
refusal to call another witness para 85
(ee) Erroneous
factual finding: Mrs Webster para 87
(ff) Judgeâs
assessment of evidence: Dr Basson and
General Knobel para 89
(gg) Erroneous
factual finding: Conspiracy to murder
Mr Dullah Omar para 96
(hh) Repeated
mistakes: legal implications para 97
(ii) Assessment
of these challenges para 100
(d) Conclusion
on bias challenge para 102
II ADMISSIBILITY OF
BAIL RECORD para 104
(a) The
law on the admissibility of bail records para 107
(b) The
approach of an appeal court to exclusion of bail record para 109
III THE QUASHING OF
THE CHARGES para 124
(a) Preliminary
legal questions para 128
(i) An
appeal against the SCA or the High Court? para 129
(ii) The
Adams
rule para 135
(aa) Origin
and application of the rule para 135
(bb) The
proper construction of section 319 para 140
(iii)
The proper approach to appeals against the refusal of
condonation
by the SCA para 154
(aa) An
appellate courtâs review of discretion para 154
(bb) The
degree of non-compliance and explanation
therefor para
157
(iv)
Should the refusal by the SCA to reserve question 11
be
overturned? para 161
(v) Nature
of the quashed charges and South Africaâs
international
law obligations para 170
(vi)
Conclusion on the application for leave to appeal the
condonation
decision para 185
(b) Is
the decision of the High Court upholding the exception
wrong? para
188
(i) The
charges that were quashed para 188
(ii) The
interpretation of section 18(2) para 205
(aa) Conspiracy
in South African law para 207
(bb) The
Military Code para 211
(cc) Murder
beyond the borders of South Africa para 217
(dd) Namibia para
220
(ee) The
scope of criminal jurisdiction para 223
(c) The
relevance of the amnesty in Namibia para 239
(d) Double
jeopardy para 248
(e) Conclusion:
Quashing of the charges para 260
SUMMARY AND ORDER
(a) Summary para
261
(b) Order para
265
*********************
THE COURT:
INTRODUCTION
In 1999, Dr
Basson, the respondent in this Court, was charged in the High Court
on 67 counts, including murder, fraud, certain
drug offences and
conspiracy to commit various crimes. The majority of the offences
were allegedly committed before 1994 when
the respondent worked in
a division of the South African Defence Force (the SADF) called the
Civil Co-operation Bureau and headed
South Africaâs bacterial and
chemical warfare programme. In April 2002, at the end of a long
trial, the respondent was acquitted
on all counts. This
application for leave to appeal which is brought by the state
against a judgment of the Supreme Court of
Appeal (SCA) arises from
these criminal proceedings. In essence, it concerns three central
issues: whether the conduct of the
judge during the trial
proceedings was such as to give rise to a reasonable perception of
bias; secondly, whether the trial court
was wrong to exclude the
evidence led in bail proceedings from the criminal trial; and
thirdly, whether the state is entitled
effectively to appeal
against the quashing of certain charges at the outset of the
proceedings at this stage; and if it is, whether
those charges were
wrongly quashed. Each of these issues gives rise to further
supplementary issues which will be elucidated
in the course of this
judgment.
A preliminary hearing in respect of this application for leave to
appeal was held in November 2003 after which this Court handed
down
a judgment in which it held that all three issues under
consideration concerned constitutional matters within the
jurisdiction
of this Court.
1
Leave to appeal was not granted, however, as it was held to be
premature at that stage to deal fully with the second requirement
for leave to appeal, namely whether it is in the interests of
justice for leave to be granted. Following upon the preliminary
hearing, the relevant portions of the record of the criminal
proceedings and proceedings on appeal, amounting to some 22 000
pages, were lodged with the Court. Full argument on the
application and its merits was heard from 21 to 25 February 2005.
2
Background to
the three issues raised in this Court
(a) Bias
Just more than three months into the trial in the High Court, on 14
February 2000, the state applied for the recusal of the judge
on
the grounds that he was biased and had prejudged the case. On 16
February 2000, the judge refused this application holding
that a
reasonable person would not have believed that he was biased
against the state.
3
The trial then continued and ran until 26 September 2001.
Judgment was handed down on 11 April 2002.
Immediately
after judgment was handed down, the state applied to have a
question of law relating to the failure by the judge to
recuse
himself reserved for decision by the SCA. On 3 May 2002, the High
Court handed down judgment in which it reserved a single
question
of law for consideration by the SCA and three further questions
conditional upon that question being answered in favour
of the
state. The single question reserved was whether the state was
barred from seeking the reservation of the question of
law as to
whether the trial judge ought to have recused himself in February
2000 because it had failed to indicate in February
2000 that it
intended to seek such reservation. If that question were answered
in favour of the state, the court reserved a
further question for
consideration by the SCA: whether the trial judge had erred in law
when he refused to recuse himself on
the grounds of bias in
February 2000.
The SCA held
that the question whether a judge was biased gave rise to a
question of fact not law, and could not be reserved under
the
provisions of
section 319
of the
Criminal Procedure Act, 51 of
1977
. It accordingly struck both questions relating to bias from
the roll. In its preliminary hearing on the application for leave
to appeal, this Court held that the question of whether the trial
judge was biased did give rise to a question of law, not fact,
and
that such question did give rise to a constitutional matter. The
Court did not decide, however, whether in delaying its
application
to reserve the question of law the state became barred from seeking
the reservation of the question later. Nor did
it decide whether
the recusal issue should be determined on the basis of the trial
record up until February 2000 only, or whether
it should be
determined on the full record of the trial. These are matters to
be determined in this case.
(b) The
admissibility of the bail record
The Office for Serious Economic Offences (OSEO) first started
investigating allegations of fraud against the respondent during
1992. OSEO is an institution that was established in terms of the
Investigation of Serious Economic Offences Act, 117 of 1991
(the
ISEO Act).
4
Section 5(8) of the Act
5
provides that witnesses examined in terms of section 5(6) of the
Act
6
may not refuse to answer questions on the ground that the answers
may be incriminating, but it also provides that no evidence
of such
questions or answers may be admitted in subsequent criminal
proceedings against the witness concerned.
The
allegations against the respondent concerned the financial
management of a top secret project of the South African Defence
Force code-named Project Coast whose purpose was to develop a
chemical and biological warfare capability for South Africa. The
respondent who is a cardiologist was the leader of this project.
During the OSEO fraud investigation, the respondent was subjected
to 39 days of questioning by Advocate Fouché of OSEO in
terms of section 5 of the ISEO Act. The respondent was not legally
represented during this questioning.
The respondent
was first arrested on charges of contravening the Medicines and
Related Substances Control Act, 101 of 1965 during
1997.
7
A bail hearing was held and the accused was granted bail. Later
in the same year, he was arrested again, this time on charges
of
fraud related to the OSEO investigation.
8
Once again a bail hearing was held over a series of days at the
end of which the accused was granted bail. During these bail
proceedings, the state was represented by Advocate Fouché
who had conducted the OSEO questioning. The respondent was
questioned on the subject matter of the fraud charges, and the
record of the OSEO questioning was used. It is the admissibility
of this bail record which is in issue in this application.
At an early
stage, the defence requested the state to indicate whether it
intended to rely on the record of the bail proceedings
in the
criminal trial. The state responded by indicating that it did.
The defence then successfully sought a ruling from the
trial court
that the bail record was inadmissible. This argument was heard
before the accused had pleaded, partly to avoid an
unnecessary
delay in the trial which would otherwise have been occasioned by
the defence application to quash certain of the
charges. The state
argues that the trial court erred in hearing argument on the
exclusion of the bail record at this early stage
and also in making
a decisive ruling on the entire record in circumstances where the
state had not indicated in what respects
it intended to rely on
aspects of the record.
At the end of
the trial, the state applied for the reservation of a question of
law in respect of the trial judgeâs decision
to refuse to admit
the bail record, among other things. The judge conditionally
reserved two questions of law in this regard.
The first was
whether the court had erred in law when it heard argument regarding
the admissibility of the bail record before
the accused had been
called upon to plead; and secondly whether it had erred in law when
it ruled that the bail record was inadmissible
in the trial.
These two
questions of law were made conditional upon the SCA answering a
further question reserved by the judge in favour of
the state.
That question related to whether the state was barred from seeking
a reservation of a question of law as to whether
the trial judge
ought to have recused himself in February 2000 because it failed to
indicate in February 2000 that it intended
to seek such
reservation. It is not immediately clear why the judge should have
made the reservation of the two questions concerning
the bail
record conditional upon the SCAâs ruling in the stateâs favour
on the question of whether the state should have
indicated that it
intended to pursue a remedy in respect of the judgeâs refusal to
recuse himself. The questions do not seem
to be inter-related at
all. Be that as it may, nothing turns on this, for the SCA did
deal with each of the conditionally reserved
questions of law.
When the matter came before the SCA,
9
it ruled that the admissibility of the bail record gave rise to
factual issues and not questions of law. It therefore struck
both
questions from the roll. In this Courtâs preliminary judgment,
it held that the SCA had erred in this respect and that
the
question of the bail record did give rise to a question of law and
to a constitutional issue. The application for leave
to appeal now
needs to be considered in the light of that decision.
(c) The
quashing of the charges
Before the
commencement of the trial, the respondent objected to nine counts
in the indictment on various grounds. After hearing
argument, the
judge dismissed two of the objections and upheld seven. Six of the
seven objections upheld related to six counts
in terms of section
18(2) of the Riotous Assemblies Act, 17 of 1956
10
and to conspiracies to commit serious crimes, mainly murder, beyond
the borders of South Africa, in England, Mozambique, Swaziland
and
Namibia.
11
The judge held that the section did not criminalise conspiracies
entered into in South Africa to commit crimes beyond the borders
of
South Africa. He held therefore that the charges to which the
respondent objected did not disclose offences. After the judge
handed down his judgment on 12 October 1999,
12
the state indicated that it did not intend to appeal the judgment
quashing the charges immediately. As will appear later in
this
judgment, this statement became a contentious issue between the
parties.
13
The trial proceeded. When judgment was handed down on 11 April
2002, the state then launched an application in terms of
section
319(1)
of the
Criminal Procedure Act
14
to
have certain questions of law reserved for consideration by the
SCA. One of those questions was whether the judge had erred in
quashing the charges on the basis that they did not disclose an
offence. The judge refused to reserve this question of law.
In June 2002, the state petitioned the SCA in terms of
section
319(3)
read with
section 317(5)
of the
Criminal Procedure Act for
the reservation of this question of law.
15
This petition was procedurally defective and in November 2002 the
registrar of the SCA wrote to the stateâs lawyers asking
for it
to be rectified. A month later the state filed a further affidavit
seeking to rectify the situation and asking for condonation
of its
non-compliance with the rules.
When the
matter was heard by the SCA in May 2003, it refused the application
for condonation with regard to the reservation of
additional
questions of law, including the question relating to the quashing
of the charges. The state then sought leave to
appeal to this
Court against that decision.
In its
judgment after the preliminary hearing, this Court held that the
question whether the charges that had been quashed did
in fact
disclose an offence did constitute a constitutional issue, even
though the conduct concerned had taken place before the
Constitution came into force. The Court expressly refrained from
determining, however, the circumstances in which it would interfere
with a decision by the SCA refusing condonation for non-compliance
with its rules. That is a matter which will have to be determined
in this case.
Because of the
nature of the complaint concerning bias, which if upheld would
vitiate all the proceedings before the High Court,
it is
appropriate to deal with it first. We then deal with the bail
record, and lastly the quashing of the charges.
I THE BIAS OF
THE TRIAL JUDGE
In its
judgment after the preliminary hearing, this Court held that the
question whether the conduct of a judicial officer gives
rise to a
reasonable apprehension of bias is a question of law.
16
The following questions remain to be considered: whether, by
delaying its application to reserve the question of law relating
to
recusal, the state was barred from seeking the reservation of that
question;
17
whether the recusal issue must be considered on the trial record
until February 2000 when the recusal application was made or
on the
full record;
18
if it is limited to the question of bias on the record until
February 2000, whether the state may rely on events thereafter to
establish the existence of bias in February 2000; and whether, if
the state succeeded on the question of bias, it could be said
that
the accused had been in jeopardy of conviction which would preclude
his re-trial under the rule against double jeopardy.
19
(a)
Bias in February 2000 or at the end of the day?
The first
question to be considered is whether the issue of bias can only be
considered in the light of the record until the judgeâs
decision
not to recuse himself in February 2000, or whether it should be
considered on the basis of the entire record of the
trial. The
state submits that the question reserved by the High Court in
respect of bias was general and not limited only to
events up to
and including the recusal decision of February 2000. The findings
to which the question refers include those made
after February
2000, and even findings made in the application for leave to
appeal. It was argued on behalf of the state that
even if this
Court were to find that the question of bias concerns bias only up
to the recusal application in February 2000,
the state would still
be entitled to rely on events after February 2000, because bias is
not something which simply arises and
then disappears and that
words and conduct after the specific event might show a
predisposition of the judicial officer throughout
the proceedings.
Incidents which occurred and rulings which were made by the trial
judge after February 2000 may be considered
as evidence of the fact
that he was subconsciously biased at the time of the initial
recusal hearing. If he were biased, it
would be artificial to
suggest that the bias existed only up until February 2000 and then
went away. Therefore, evidence of
events which occurred after
February 2000 is relevant to the question of whether the trial
judge ought to have recused himself
in February 2000.
The respondent
is adamant that the initial question reserved by the state was only
concerned with bias manifested up until February
2000 and argued
that this is clear from the judgment of the High Court on leave to
appeal. So adamant was the respondentâs
counsel, that they
submitted no argument on the events after February 2000. The state
sought to broaden the scope of the bias
question to bias at the end
of the day, because it was aware that the original question related
only to bias up to 4 February
2000. The respondent points out that
before the SCA the state conceded that it did not rely on events
subsequent to 4 February
2000 in its appeal based on bias. The
respondent further submits that the question of bias at the end of
the day was never considered
by the SCA.
For the
purposes of this application we have assumed in favour of the state
that this Court is entitled to consider allegations
of bias related
to events occurring before and up to February 2000, as well as
subsequent events, up to the conclusion of the
trial.
(b) The legal
test for bias
Access to
courts that function fairly and in public is a basic right.
Section 34 of the Constitution states:
â
Everyone has the right to
have any dispute that can be resolved by the application of law
decided in a fair public hearing before
a court or, where
appropriate, another independent and impartial tribunal or forum.â
The
impartiality of judicial officers is an essential requirement of a
constitutional democracy and is closely linked to the independence
of courts. Section 165(2) of the Constitution states:
â
The courts are independent
and subject only to the Constitution and the law, which they must
apply impartially and without fear,
favour or prejudice.â
In
President of the Republic of South Africa and Others v South
African Rugby Football Union and Others
20
(SARFU)
this Court held that a judge who sits in a case in
which she or he is disqualified from sitting because, seen
objectively, there
exists a reasonable apprehension that the judge
may be biased, acts in a manner inconsistent with section 34 of the
Constitution
and in breach of the requirements of section 165(2)
and the prescribed oath of office.
21
It went on to lay down the following test for recusal:
â
The question is whether a
reasonable, objective and informed person would on the correct facts
reasonably apprehend that the Judge
has not or will not bring an
impartial mind to bear on the adjudication of the case, that is a
mind open to persuasion by the evidence
and the submissions of
counsel. The reasonableness of the apprehension must be assessed in
the light of the oath of office taken
by the Judges to administer
justice without fear or favour; and their ability to carry out that
oath by reason of their training
and experience. It must be assumed
that they can disabuse their minds of any irrelevant personal
beliefs or predispositions.
They must take into account the fact
that they have a duty to sit in any case in which they are not
obliged to recuse themselves.
At the same time, it must never be
forgotten that an impartial Judge is a fundamental prerequisite for
a fair trial and a judicial
officer should not hesitate to recuse
herself or himself if there are reasonable grounds on the part of a
litigant for apprehending
that the judicial officer, for whatever
reasons, was not or will not be impartial.â
22
(footnotes omitted)
As far as criminal trials are concerned, the requirement of
impartiality is also closely linked to the right of an accused
person to a fair trial, which is guaranteed in section 35(3) of the
Constitution. This right has been analysed by this Court in
a
number of cases.
23
The Court has stated that criminal trials have to be conducted in
accordance with notions of basic fairness and justice.
24
The nature of the right to a fair trial as a comprehensive and
integrated right has been emphasised.
25
The fairness of a trial is clearly under threat if a court does
not apply the law and assess the facts of the case impartially
and
without fear, favour or prejudice.
26
The requirement that justice must not only be done, but also be
seen to be done has been recognised as lying at the heart of
the
right to a fair trial.
27
The right to a fair trial requires fairness to the accused, as
well as fairness to the public as represented by the state.
28
The impartiality of a judicial officer is crucial to the
administration of justice. So too is the perception of his or her
impartiality. These principles are recognised in many foreign
democracies. Thus, in
Van Rooyen and Others v The State and
Others (General Council of the Bar of South Africa Intervening)
29
this Court cited with approval the following reasoning of Le Dain J
in the Canadian Supreme Court in the case of
Valente v The
Queen
:
30
â
Both independence and
impartiality are fundamental not only to the capacity to do justice
in a particular case but also to individual
and public confidence in
the administration of justice. Without that confidence the system
cannot command the respect and acceptance
that are essential to its
effective operation. It is, therefore, important that a tribunal
should be perceived as independent,
as well as impartial, and that
the test for independence should include that perception.â
31
Similar
concerns were expressed by this Court in
S v Jaipal
as
follows:
â
It has to instil confidence
in the criminal justice system with the public, including those
close to the accused, as well as those
distressed by the audacity
and horror of crime.â
32
In
SARFU,
33
the Court identified two different approaches for determining âthe
appearance of biasâ. The focus of the one is âreal
likelihood
of biasâ and of the other âa reasonable suspicion or
apprehension of biasâ.
34
The Court accepted, relying on earlier authority of the Appellate
Division
35
(as the SCA then was) that it was not necessary for a litigant who
complained of bias to establish that there was a real likelihood
of
bias.
36
The Court then went on to consider the distinction between
âsuspicionâ and âapprehensionâ and, to avoid the
potentially
inappropriate connotations that the word âsuspicionâ
might engender, preferred the phrase âreasonable apprehension of
biasâ
to âreasonable suspicion of biasâ.
37
The Court held
that there was a presumption in our law against partiality of the
judicial officer.
38
In reaching this conclusion it reasoned as follows:
â
This is based on the
recognition that legal training and experience prepare Judges for
the often difficult task of fairly determining
where the truth may
lie in a welter of contradictory evidence.â
39
The effect of this
presumption is that an applicant who alleges that a judge is biased
or reasonably apprehended to be biased
must establish that.
40
The Court also acknowledged that all judges as human beings bring
to their work their life experience which means that they
are not
neutral in an absolute sense. The Court held that it is not
improper for judges to have individual perspectives and
for these
to be brought to bear on their adjudication of cases.
41
In
South African Commercial Catering and Allied Workers Union
and Others v Irvin & Johnson Ltd (Seafoods Division Fish
Processing)
42
(SACCAWU)
this Court emphasised that not only is there a
presumption in favour of the impartiality of the court, but it is a
presumption
which is not easily dislodged. Cogent and convincing
evidence is necessary in order to do so.
43
The Court, repeating what had already been held in
SARFU
,
referred to the two contexts in which reasonableness fits into the
enquiry. It emphasised that not only must the evaluation
be made
from the perspective of a reasonable person, but the perception of
bias must itself also be reasonable.
44
In this regard, Cameron AJ writing for the majority, stated:
â
It is no doubt possible to
compact the âdoubleâ aspect of reasonableness inasmuch as the
reasonable person should not be supposed
to entertain unreasonable
or ill-informed apprehensions. But the two-fold emphasis does serve
to underscore the weight of the
burden resting on a person alleging
judicial bias or its appearance. As Cory J stated in a related
context on behalf of the Supreme
Court of Canada:
â
Regardless of the precise
words used to describe the test, the object of the different
formulations is to emphasise that the threshold
for a finding of
real or perceived bias is high. It is a finding that must be
carefully considered since it calls into question
an element of
judicial integrity.ââ
45
In
SARFU
and
SACCAWU
the Court was concerned with the issue of
perceived bias in appellate courts where the bench is composed of
more than one judge.
In evaluating the situation regarding a trial
before a single judge, a court must be sensitive to the different
nuances of such
a âliveâ situation in a court of first
instance, where demeanour or body language, tone of voice, the
timing of remarks and
the emotional response of participants in
exchanges to one another may play a role. The context of the
proceedings will be relevant
to the determination of the
apprehensions of a reasonable person. However, in principle, the
test remains the same.
When
considering the issue of bias in a trial court, the following must
be borne in mind. There is a difference between grounding
a
complaint of bias on the conduct of the judge in hearing the case
and grounding such a complaint on the relationship between
the
judge and one of the parties or witnesses. It is generally far
harder to establish a reasonable apprehension of bias in
the former
case. As Harms JA noted in a recent decision of the SCA:
â
. . . a Judge is not simply
a âsilent umpireâ.
46
A Judge âis not a mere umpire to answer the question âHowâs
that?ââ Lord Denning once said.
47
Fairness of court proceedings requires of the trier to be actively
involved in the management of the trial, to control the proceedings,
to ensure that public and private resources are not wasted, to point
out when evidence is irrelevant, and to refuse to listen to
irrelevant evidence. A supine approach towards litigation by
judicial officers is not justifiable either in terms of the fair
trial requirement or in the context of resources.â
48
(footnotes in the original)
In that case, the
litigant had complained of the judgeâs questioning in a case
which it argued had suggested that the judge
had disclosed a
predisposition to an issue in the case.
This reasoning
is similar to that adopted by the Appellate Division in the earlier
case of
R v Silber
49
where Schreiner JA reasoned as follows:
â
[T]he grounds relied upon
for suggesting bias were not facts outside the course of proceedings
such as are ordinarily put forward
as reasons why the judicial
officer in question should not try the case. The grounds related
purely to what had happened in the
course of the trial. Neither
counsel has been able to find any reported case in which an
application for recusal has been made
in the course of a trial on
the ground that the judicial officer has shown bias by his conduct
of the proceedings. And this is
not surprising, since the ordinary
way of meeting any apparent bias shown by the court in its conduct
of the proceedings would
be by challenging his eventual decision in
an appeal or review. Bias, as it is used in this connection, is
something quite different
from a state of inclination towards one
side in the litigation caused by the evidence and the argument, and
it is difficult to
suppose that any lawyer could believe that
recusal might be based upon a mere indication, before the
pronouncement of judgment,
that the court thinks that at that stage
one or the other party has the better prospects of success. It
unavoidably happens sometimes
that, as a trial proceeds, the court
gains a provisional impression favourable to one side or the other,
and, although normally
it is not desirable to give such an
impression outward manifestation, no suggestion of bias could
ordinarily be based thereon.
Indeed a court may in a proper case
call upon a party to argue out of the usual order, thus clearly
indicating that its provisional
view favours the other party, but no
reasonable person, least of all a person trained in the law, would
think of ascribing this
provisional attitude to, or identifying it
with, bias.â
50
These
considerations need to be borne in mind in the assessment of the
stateâs argument that it is the conduct of the judge
during the
trial that has given rise to the complaint of bias. As Schreiner
JA pointed out in his remarks in the passage from
Silber
just quoted, it is difficult for a litigant to establish bias
simply on the basis of the conduct of a judge during a trial.
Judges are not silent umpires but may and should participate in the
trial proceedings by asking questions, ensuring that litigants
conduct themselves properly and making rulings on the admissibility
of evidence and other matters as the trial progresses. Inevitably
litigants will from time to time be aggrieved about both the
content of the rulings made by the judge and the manner in which
a
judge may ask questions or intervene. Such grievances need to be
construed in the realisation that trials are often emotional
and
heated as a result of the disputes between the parties. A court
considering a claim of bias should be wary of permitting
a
disgruntled litigant to complain of bias successfully simply
because the judge has ruled against them, or been impatient with
the manner in which they conduct their case.
On the other
hand, it is important to emphasise that judges should at all times
seek to be measured and courteous to those who
appear before them.
Even where litigants or lawyers conduct themselves inappropriately
and judicial censure is required, that
should be done in a manner
befitting the judicial office. Nothing said in this judgment
should be understood as condoning discourteous
or inappropriate
remarks by judicial officers. Inappropriate behaviour by a judge
is unacceptable and may, in certain circumstances,
warrant a
complaint to the appropriate authorities, but it will not
ordinarily give rise to a reasonable apprehension of bias.
It will
only do so where it is of such a quality that it becomes clear that
it arises not from irritation or impatience with
the way in which a
case is being litigated, but from what may reasonably be perceived
to be bias.
Finally, it
should be noted that the state submitted in this Court that the
conduct of the judge in the trial was biased, though
not
consciously so, and that his conduct gave rise to a reasonable
apprehension of bias. The specific conduct referred to by
the
state to establish this charge must be considered in the light of
this submission.
(c) Alleged
specific manifestations of bias
The facts and
allegations upon which the state relies in support of its bias
contentions are dealt with in some detail in what
follows up until
paragraph 102. They can broadly be divided into two categories
namely: (i) remarks and interventions made by
Hartzenberg J during
the course of the trial; and (ii) incorrect legal rulings and
factual findings he made during the course
of the trial or in the
judgment. The argument in respect of (i) is simply that the
remarks and interventions made by the judge
give rise to a
reasonable apprehension of bias. The argument in respect of (ii)
is that the legal rulings and factual findings
made against the
state by the judge are not only wrong, but are so unreasonable and
one-sided as to give rise to a reasonable
apprehension of bias,
especially if viewed cumulatively.
The approach
we take is to set out briefly the relevant legal principles in
respect of each category of complaint and then to
evaluate the
individual complaints cumulatively in the light of those legal
principles. We first deal with the remarks or interventions
and
thereafter with the rulings and findings during and at the end of
the trial.
It is
important that the allegations of bias be considered in the context
of this trial. The trial ran for a period of about
31 months from
4 October 1999 to 11 April 2002. The court sat for 295 days and
heard evidence from over 140 witnesses. Evidence
was also taken on
commission from two witnesses in Jacksonville, Florida between 10
October and 23 October 2000. The record
of the trial runs to over
20 000 pages. The judgment on the merits exceeds 1000 pages. In
addition, the trial court heard argument
and delivered separate
judgments on six attendant issues. It was accordingly a marathon
trial attended by the usual frustrations
and difficulties of such
litigation.
(i)
Remarks and interventions made by the judge
The state
complains effectively of nine interventions by the trial judge as
cumulatively suggesting that the judge was either
subconsciously
biased or that the conduct gave rise to a reasonable apprehension
of bias. These interventions, which will be
described below, can
broadly be divided into two categories: those that, the state
argues, suggest that the judge was hostile
towards the state; and
secondly those that the state argues show that the judge had
prejudged certain issues.
As far as the
first category is concerned, this Court should bear in mind that in
long criminal trials a judge may at times make
remarks that are
inappropriate, or display irritation towards counsel. At times
such interventions may arise from attempts at
humour. In
considering the question of whether such remarks give rise to a
reasonable apprehension of bias, a court should not
hold a judge to
an ideal standard which would be difficult to achieve. Moreover, a
court considering a claim of bias must take
into account the
presumption of impartiality, mentioned by this Court in
SARFU.
51
To establish bias, therefore, a complainant would have to show
that the remarks were of such a number or quality as to go beyond
any suggestion of mere irritation by the judge caused by a long
trial, and establish a pattern of conduct sufficient to dislodge
the presumption of impartiality and replace it with a reasonable
apprehension of bias.
As far as the
second category is concerned, that the judge had prejudged an issue
in the case, the remarks of the courts in
Silber
52
and
Take and Save Trading
53
are of assistance. Both make it clear that it is rare that a court
will uphold a complaint of bias arising from a judgeâs
conduct
during a trial and affirm that it is not inappropriate for a court
to express views about certain aspects of the evidence.
They make
it clear, as well, that the fact that a judge may express incorrect
views is not sufficient to ground a claim of bias.
Having set out
the relevant legal principles, we turn now to consider briefly each
of the nine incidents relied upon by the state.
(aa)
The state was conducting âtrial by ambushâ
When the state
suggested that it would prove the bail record after the
respondentâs version of events was before the court,
the judge
remarked that âthis was exactly what the state did at the bail
hearing, it is trial by ambushâ. In its judgment
on the
admissibility of the bail record, the court then found that counsel
for the state during the bail hearing had cross-examined
the
respondent with the exclusive purpose of laying the basis for
cross-examination during the trial. This remark echoed that
conclusion by suggesting that the manner in which counsel sought to
present the stateâs case would amount to âtrial by ambushâ.
(bb)
The
judge was âboredâ by the stateâs evidence
During the
leading of a state witness on financial statements, the judge
remarked that he was bored to death.
54
The state argues that the statement that he was bored created the
impression that the judge had already made a decision in regard
to
vital aspects of the stateâs case or that he was hostile to the
stateâs case. The respondent argues that the remark must
again
be understood in context. The remark arose when counsel for the
state suggested that the witness should read a documentary
report
into evidence which another witness had already read into the
record. Counsel for the respondent suggested that he was
willing
to accept as common cause certain contents of the documents if it
would help speed things up. It was then that the judge
made the
remark about being bored. After that remark, the judge suggested a
way to speed up the process of examining the witness.
The
respondent submits that it is clear from the context that the court
was attempting to bypass the need to go into extensive
detail on a
subject which the defence did not dispute.
In reply, the
state denies that the evidence overlapped with that of a previous
witness. It claims that the evidence provided
the substratum for
the stateâs entire case on the commercial charges and was
necessary. In the judgment on recusal, the judge
explains that the
documents that were being read by the witness were not before him
at that time. When he asked the stateâs
counsel which documents
he referred to, counsel apparently wanted to read the evidence
afresh, an idea that âfilled [the judge]
with horrorâ.
55
The judge put to counsel that the defence was unlikely to dispute
the evidence and it was therefore not necessary for the witness
to
go further than give his opinion based on the documents and in that
context, the judge explained that he was bored to listen
to the
fine detail of the matter.
(cc) Counsel
for the state was âconfusedâ
The third
remark also occurred during the leading of evidence by the state
when counsel for the state remarked that he (counsel
for the state)
had become confused. The judge then remarked âif it were the
only time [that you have been confused], I would
be happy.â
56
The court acknowledged in the recusal judgment that the remark was
inappropriate and apologised for it.
57
The respondent points to the fact that the judge apologised for
the remark and argues that, in any case, it had no bearing on
the
merits.
(dd) The
prejudice to the stateâs case, other than the effect on counselâs
ego
The fourth
remark occurred during oral argument on the recusal application.
The court asked counsel about a particular complaint
that the state
had made. He asked what prejudice had been caused to the state, and
added: âother than the fact that I have
damaged your ego.â
58
The state argues that this sarcastic attitude demonstrated
hostility towards the state.
(ee) In
chambers the judge laughed with the respondentâs counsel about
the unsuccessful attempts of the Asset Forfeiture Unit
The fifth
remark occurred after a failed attempt by the Asset Forfeiture Unit
to acquire a restraint order in respect of the respondentâs
property in August 1999. Subsequently, the matter was being
discussed in chambers with the judge in the criminal matter.
59
The state suggests that while they were there, the judge and
counsel for the respondent laughed together about the failed
application. The state argues that this incident in chambers
created the perception that the judge sided with the defence team
and was eager to embarrass the state.
In his recusal
judgment, the judge admitted that he had laughed, and acknowledged
that this might create the impression that he
was ill-mannered or
insensitive, but not that it would indicate bias.
60
(ff) The
judgeâs comments concerning the import of General Knobelâs
evidence
The next
intervention occurred during the cross-examination of General
Knobel, an important witness for the state. The state
submits that
during the cross-examination, counsel for the respondent put
forward an incorrect summary of the stateâs case.
When counsel
for the state objected, the judge responded by saying that it was
not incorrect and he âpromisedâ that the
witness had indeed
given evidence to that effect.
A few days
later the state obtained a transcript of the proceedings which
demonstrated that the defenceâs summary had been incorrect.
When
the state tried to raise this with the judge, counsel for the
respondent said that the dispute could have been resolved
outside
of court in a collegial spirit. The court took the matter no
further.
In this Court,
the state submitted that the remark âI promise youâ indicated
that the judge had prejudged the matter and created
a perception of
bias against the state. The respondent argues that it was
legitimate for the judge to have been concerned with
the wasting of
time and that his suggestion that the matter be resolved in a
collegial way was aimed at saving time and does
not ground a
reasonable apprehension of bias. In response to the stateâs
submissions that the judge had evidently prejudged
an important
issue erroneously, the respondent, at the hearing, contended that
it was not unreasonable for the judge to have
formed an opinion at
that point of the trial.
(gg) The
comment that a witness had sympathy for the accused
During the
cross-examination of one of the state witnesses, the witness made
certain concessions which contradicted his evidence-in-chief
and
which took the state by surprise. The state sought to explore the
witnessâs attitude towards the respondent by asking
whether he
had sympathy for him. The witness responded that he did. Counsel
for the respondent objected to the line of questioning
and then the
judge enquired why the state was asking these questions. When
counsel for the state explained, the judge retorted
to the effect
that it did not matter if the witness had sympathy for the
respondent.
In the recusal
judgment the judge explains that he made this remark while
attempting to establish whether the state now wanted
to treat the
witness as hostile. In the judgment, the judge stated:
â
Wieseâs evidence indicates
that he was part and parcel of the trap and could not hear properly
what was said. He was one of at
least five policeman involved with
the trap. How his attitude towards the accused could be of any
importance with regard to what
happened during the trap is beyond
me, and how the state can think that it can affect it is even less
understandable. This perception
[of bias] astounds me.â
61
(our translation)
The state
argues that the attitude of the court âwas unjustifiably
intemperateâ and the manner in which the court dealt with
the
line of questioning created a perception of bias. The respondent
argues that the state was entitled to proceed, in terms
of
section
190
of the
Criminal Procedure Act, to
have the witness declared a
hostile witness. The state did not do this.
(hh) Remarks
and questions by the judge regarding âProject Coastâ
The state
makes a series of complaints about the trial judgeâs conduct in
assessing evidence relating to Project Coast. It
is necessary to
explain briefly the factual context in which the stateâs concerns
arise.
The SADF
established a covert operation, known as Project Coast, in order to
acquire a chemical-weapons capability for South Africa.
The
respondent was involved in this project. The charges which are
relevant to the present discussion are those of fraud and
theft.
The stateâs case was that the respondent (and Dr Mijburgh) had a
common purpose to defraud the SADF by appropriating
funds meant to
be used for Project Coast.
An important
dispute related to a group of companies known as the WPW group.
The stateâs case was that the respondent participated
in setting
this group up with the purpose of channelling funds into it for his
own benefit. The idea was to create the impression
that this group
was channelling funds to be used for Project Coast, when in fact
the respondent was channelling funds into these
companies for
himself. The respondentâs defence was that these companies were
indeed formed to facilitate the clandestine
operations of Project
Coast. Therefore, if there were no link between the WPW group and
Project Coast, the stateâs case against
the respondent would be
very strong. If, however, there were a link, the stateâs case
would be considerably weaker.
The state
complains that on 4 February, still early in the trial, the judge
made a statement to the effect that it would not take
much to
convince him that the WPW group was linked to Project Coast. The
state argues this statement indicates that the judge
had prejudged
this question which lay at the heart of the criminal trial.
Moreover, the state claims the statement was not an
indication of a
prima facie view of the judge, but a formed and final view and that
there was no evidence that justified the
court making this remark
at such an early stage in the proceedings.
The state
argues that the trial judge therefore created the impression that
he had prejudged a central issue in the case. In
its submissions
in reply, the state refers to another comment by the judge which
indicated that he relied on newspaper reports
in order to form the
opinion that the stateâs submissions were inherently implausible.
In the course of argument regarding
the recusal application, the
judge put it to counsel for the state that it was inherently
implausible that the accused could
have managed to defraud Project
Coast of R86 million out of a total budget of R152 million. When
the proceedings continued,
counsel for the state pointed out that
the stateâs case was that Project Coast had been defrauded of R36
million and that in
light of the lower amount, it was
understandable why the state had failed to pick up the fraud. The
judge said that he had read
in the newspaper that it was R80
million. The state submits that the fact that the judge used
newspaper reports to develop the
view that the stateâs case was
improbable, created a reasonable apprehension of bias.
The respondent
argues that the state is incorrect to say that the judge had formed
a final view about the link between the WPW
group and Project
Coast. When he made the remark, he had already heard evidence from
another witness to the effect that it was
SADF policy that in order
to prevent a chemical attack on South African troops and to create
a chemical-weapons capacity, anything
that had to be done, ought to
be done. This would include getting information from enemy agents,
buying items on the black market
or stealing information. Evidence
was led that there was no firm plan on how money was to be
transferred: the general policy
being, the product
(chemical-weapons capability) was needed, the money was available
and there was to be no self-enrichment.
The respondent argues
further that it is clear from certain exchanges during the recusal
application that the judge still had
an open mind as to the facts.
In the recusal
judgment, the judge suggests that at the time he made the remark
complained of, he was merely exploring the possibilities
of the
evidence. He states that when he was asking whether the witness
had considered the possibilities that the funds were
actually being
channelled through these companies to the benefit of the project
âMr Ackerman nearly had an apoplectic fitâ.
62
Despite the unfortunate tone of such a comment, it is relevant
that he also points out that a judge is entitled or obliged to
ask
questions to clarify the issues.
63
He also said his questions regarding the WPW group and its
concurrence with the project cannot indicate prejudice. He stated
that it may have indicated that he did not fully understand at that
stage what all the facts would lead to â an indication
that he
did not want to concede, but nevertheless one which he believed
would not have been seen by a reasonable litigant as
prejudice.
64
(ii) Judgeâs
conduct during the cross-examination of Dr Basson
The state
asserted that its cross-examination of Dr Basson was hampered by
the judgeâs interjections. It notes that the judge
asked whether
it was necessary for the state to ask the respondent questions on
the answers given during the bail proceedings;
the courtâs
suggestion that the respondent should be entitled to read documents
before he was cross-examined on them; and the
courtâs comment
that the state was leading Dr Basson into an ambush.
(jj) Assessment
of challenges relating to remarks and interventions by the judge
The first five
of these complaints
65
and the seventh
66
and ninth
67
are all comments or conduct of the judge which the state argues
tend to show hostility to the stateâs counsel or to their case.
Several of them may have been inappropriate, as the judge himself
acknowledged in the recusal judgment. Regrettable as judicial
impatience may be, reliance on several examples of such impatience
or irritation is not sufficient to ground a reasonable apprehension
of bias. Neither individually nor cumulatively do these incidents
suggest that the judge was biased towards the state. Most of
them
suggest a degree of irritation with the manner in which the stateâs
case was being conducted and little more.
The other two
interventions
68
disclose the judgeâs views on the evidence he had heard. As
Schreiner JA noted in
Silber
,
69
it is inevitable that during a long trial a judge will form
provisional impressions favourable to one side or another. It is
also inevitable that judges will put questions based on those
impressions to witnesses and to counsel. Such questions give
litigants an opportunity to rebut incorrect impressions that have
been expressed by the judge. To argue that the putting of an
incorrect impression by a judge gives rise to a reasonable
apprehension of bias ignores the fact that judges should ask
appropriate
questions during a trial in order to assist in the
process of fact-finding that lies at the heart of criminal trials.
To the
extent therefore that the interventions complained of by the
state relate to the incorrect assessment of the evidence by the
judge, it cannot be said that they could have given rise to a
reasonable apprehension of bias.
We turn now to
consider the second category of complaints raised by the state.
(ii)
Mistaken legal rulings and findings of fact
In addition to
pointing to certain comments and interventions by the judge, the
state argued that certain of the rulings made
by the trial judge
were indicative of bias on his part. The rulings can be divided
into those in which the judge made a mistake
of law, those where he
refused to exercise a discretion in favour of the state, and those
in which, according to the state, his
assessment of the facts was
completely wrong. In considering these complaints, it is important
to bear in mind that it is inevitable
that, from time to time, a
judge may make an error of law in determining the admissibility of
evidence in a long trial. To assert
that an error of law
constitutes evidence of bias, or gives rise to a reasonable
apprehension of bias, would be to underestimate
the difficulties of
presiding as a judge in long trials and to impose a counsel of
perfection on judicial officers. Such an
approach would be at odds
with our constitutional order.
An argument
that a judge has made a mistake on the facts, even if correct, is
not ordinarily sufficient on its own to give rise
to a reasonable
apprehension of bias. To establish a reasonable apprehension of
bias on such an argument is not easy. We must
bear in mind that
our law does not permit the state a right of appeal on mistaken
factual findings, although it is inevitable
that from time to time
a trial court will make a mistake on the facts in a criminal case.
For a mistake on the facts to give
rise to a reasonable
apprehension of bias, it would need to be established that the
mistake of fact is so unreasonable on the
record that it must have
arisen from bias or given rise to a reasonable apprehension of
bias.
Each of the
eight incidents or complaints will now be considered in turn.
(aa)
Attorney-client privilege
Counsel for
the respondent cross-examined a state witness about a conversation
that he had had with his lawyer. The essence of
the line of
questioning was to seek confirmation from the witness that he had
discussed his guilt or innocence with his lawyer.
During the
course of the cross-examination counsel for the state objected to
the line of questioning on the grounds of attorney-client
privilege. The court dismissed the objection stating that that
privilege attached to the attorney and not the client.
The state
quite rightly
70
argues that the judge was incorrect and that the privilege attaches
to a client and not the attorney. It also argues that the
cross-examination in question intruded into the terrain covered by
the privilege and that the manner in which the court overruled
the
objection by the state created a perception of bias against the
state. In the judgment on recusal, the judge states that
he may
have made a mistake on the law, but that the dismissal of the
objection was correct, since the witness had waived the
privilege.
He described the perception of the state in regard to the courtâs
treatment of the privilege as âtrivialâ (âbeuselagtigâ)
and
baseless.
71
The state argues that its complaint was not trivial and that the
fact that the court summarily dismissed the objection without
calling for argument from the parties, gives rise to a perception
of bias.
(bb) Refusal to
allow or call three further witnesses
The state had
wanted to call three further witnesses (Mr Murgham, Mr Regli and Mr
Dreier) during the presentation of its case,
but for various
reasons had not been able to do so. The witnesses later came
forward after the state had closed its case. Mr
Regli had
originally refused to give evidence but changed his mind after the
close of the stateâs case. In the case of Mr
Murgham, the state
had been under an incorrect impression that he was a defence
witness and only realised that this was not so
later, hence the
late application to call him.
The state
therefore asked the court to exercise its powers under
section 186
of the
Criminal Procedure Act to
call the witnesses. The court
refused to do so.
Section 186
provides that:
â
The court may at any stage
of criminal proceedings subpoena or cause to be subpoenaed any
person as a witness at such proceedings,
and the court shall so
subpoena a witness or so cause a witness to be subpoenaed if the
evidence of such witness appears to the
court essential to the just
decision of the case.â
72
The state
views the failure of the court to call these witnesses as an
indication of bias and further submits that the courtâs
conclusion that these witnessesâ evidence was not essential and
that they would never admit to any involvement with Dr Basson
was
wholly unfounded.
The respondent
rebutted these submissions before this Court and indicated that the
judge was entitled to make such a finding on
the likely credibility
of the above witnesses, based on testimony that had already been
given by General Knobel.
According to
the state, the judge had no factual basis for the above conclusion
and his decisions were so dramatically erroneous
that they can only
lead to a reasonable apprehension of bias. By refusing to call
witnesses, the court could be said to have
protected the accused
from proper cross-examination and from having the strength of his
testimony tested against that of other
witnesses.
However, it is
for the court to determine whether the evidence of the witnesses is
âessential to the just decisionâ of the
case. In considering
this, the court was entitled to consider the right of the accused
that the trial be concluded within a
reasonable time.
73
It was further relevant that the state sought that the evidence
from these witnesses be received on commission which might have
precluded Dr Basson from being present during their testimony and
would have been very costly.
(cc) The
implausibility of Dr Bassonâs evidence
The need for
the state to prove that the existence of the financial principals
was merely fabrication by the respondent in the
fraud charges was,
according to the state, central to the case. The respondent made a
number of substantial investments which
he claimed to have made on
behalf of the principals with no financial benefit for himself at
all. He had made no mention of
the principals at the bail hearing,
nor in the affidavit to which he had deposed in respect of the
Merton House investment, nor
in the information that he submitted
to the Auditor-General regarding Project Coast. However, at the
trial he claimed to have
acted not on his own behalf in those
investments, but on behalf of the financial principals from whom he
received instructions.
Contrary to this, documentary evidence at
the trial pointed to the fact that he himself had made those
financial decisions with
no reference to any principals, whether
Russians, Germans or Libyans, as he claimed at the trial.
The state
submits that it had proved beyond reasonable doubt that Dr Bassonâs
evidence of financial principals was fabricated
as these principals
did not exist, yet the trial judge accepted Dr Bassonâs version
that he had indeed made the investments
upon the instructions of
financial principals. The state points to several examples on the
record which, it argues, indicate
the implausibility of Dr Bassonâs
version, and support its argument that Dr Bassonâs evidence
should not have been accepted.
It is not necessary to deal with
each of those examples in this judgment. An example will suffice.
The state points to the
fact that the judge should not have
accepted Dr Bassonâs allegation that he had been instructed by
Libyan financiers to make
investments for them in Tubmaster, an
American company, in order for the Libyans to gain green card
status. The state argues
that this proposition is highly
improbable and that there is little or no evidence to support it.
Thus, the state continues,
the judgeâs acceptance of this
evidence is an indication of bias.
The state
based a large part of its case on the fraud charges on the contact
that the respondent had had with Libya and the time
period when
this happened. The respondent alleged that he had had contact with
principals in Libya from 1986, but the stateâs
case was that the
respondent had only had contact with Libya after 1993, after the
allegedly fraudulent transactions had been
concluded. The trial
court found that it was at least possible that the respondent had
had contact with the Libyans before 1993.
In its analysis of the
evidence relied on by the court, the state submits that this
evidence did not support this ruling at
all.
To counter
these allegations, Dr Bassonâs counsel explained that the
circumstances under which Dr Basson was being questioned
about the
financial principals at the bail hearing were different from those
at the trial. The manner of questioning was also
different, thus
the answers Dr Basson gave at the trial which were allegedly
inconsistent were actually not.
To a large
extent, this complaint by the state is a complaint that the judge
reached the wrong conclusion on the evidence led.
The evidence of
Dr Basson in which he stated that he had acted for certain
principals was accepted by the trial court.
(dd) The
judgeâs refusal to call Mr Buffham
The state
applied for the court to allow it to call Mr Buffham as a witness
as, allegedly, his evidence would have seriously contradicted
that
of the respondent who had testified that Mr Buffham was an employee
of the financial principals who had channelled funds
to the
respondent. The court would have been entitled to call Mr Buffham
in terms of the International Co-operation in Criminal
Matters Act,
75 of 1996 if it considered that his evidence was ânecessary in
the interests of justiceâ.
74
However, the
court refused to call Mr Buffham, but made conclusions regarding
his credibility without having heard him. To quote
the learned
judge: âYes, Buffham was a âwheeler and dealerâ if you ever
saw oneâ.
75
The state argued that this comment and the failure to call Mr
Buffham gave rise to a reasonable apprehension of bias. We cannot
agree. The judge had a discretion as to whether to take steps to
call Mr Buffham. In the exercise of that discretion, he had
to
consider whether Mr Buffhamâs evidence was ânecessary in the
interests of justiceâ. It is clear that from other evidence
the
judge had heard concerning Mr Buffham, he doubted his credibility
which informed his decision that Mr Buffhamâs evidence
was not
necessary in the interests of justice.
(ee) Erroneous
factual finding: evidence of Mrs Webster
The trial
court reached a conclusion that Mrs Jane Webster had known of the
respondentâs ties with the SADF, but the state submits
that this
conclusion was not supported by Mrs Websterâs testimony or that
of the respondent. In this regard, the state submits
that the
courtâs failure to keep an open mind until the conclusion of the
case created an apprehension of bias.
The respondent
contends that the judgeâs comment on the above issue was made
during final argument, thus the court had already
heard the
evidence that would lead it to reach the conclusion it did.
Furthermore, it was possible that Mrs Webster knew something
of Dr
Bassonâs SADF connections, as Mr Dave Webster had been present at
a party where Dr Basson was made a brigadier and the
nature of Mr
Websterâs relationship with his wife indicated that he would
communicate such information to her.
(ff) Judgeâs
assessment of evidence: Dr Basson and General Knobel
Counsel for
the state further argues that the manner in which the trial judge
assessed the evidence of the respondent and General
Knobel in his
judgment was incorrect. They argue that the judge considered the
evidence-in-chief of state witnesses as well
as their
cross-examination and that in many instances, the judge held that
the effect of the cross-examination was to neutralise
the evidence
led in chief. However, in his assessment of the evidence of the
respondent, the judge did not refer to the cross-examination
at
all, despite the fact that he had been cross-examined for 33 days.
With regard to
General Knobel, the defence cross-examined him with the aim of
eliciting concessions from him, which it did. However,
on
re-examination the state established that the source of information
upon which the concessions had been based was the respondent
himself. This nullified the probative value of the concessions
because they were not based on first-hand knowledge of General
Knobel and only on the subjective view of the respondent. The
state argues that the judge completely ignored the re-examination
of General Knobel by the state in its assessment of his evidence.
Secondly,
General Knobel had been asked whether he thought that the
respondent had been depicted in a series of photographs.
General
Knobel denied this, but mistakenly the judge held that General
Knobel had indeed confirmed that the respondent had been
depicted
in the photographs.
Thirdly,
General Knobel had testified during cross-examination that he had
not been aware that certain Special Branch members
had received
Rolex watches. The judge, in his assessment of General Knobelâs
evidence, mistakenly found that General Knobel
had accepted that
certain Special Branch members had received Rolex watches.
Fourthly, the
testimony of General Knobel was that he had no knowledge of
protective clothing donated to an Angolan political
organisation,
UNITA, in the 1980s or transactions with Iraqis concerning the sale
of protective clothing. The stateâs complaint
is that when the
judge summarised General Knobelâs evidence he again found
erroneously that General Knobel had verified that
protective
clothing and military help had been given to UNITA and that the
clothing had been sold to Iranians.
Fifthly,
General Knobel testified that he was unaware of the methodology
used by the state in the formulation of the charge sheet.
The
judge found, however, again mistakenly that General Knobel had
conceded that the state had a particular approach to gathering
evidence to formulate the charge.
The state had
also asked to recall General Knobel, but the court refused. The
respondent submits that this was due to the fact
that proceedings
had already advanced far and the state had not given the respondent
enough time to respond to the application.
It appeared to the
respondent that the state was not serious about recalling General
Knobel, and this must have also been the
courtâs impression.
(gg) Erroneous
factual finding: conspiracy to murder Mr Dullah Omar
The respondent
was charged with conspiracy to murder Mr Dullah Omar by
substituting his heart medication with poison. In its
submissions,
the state highlighted certain evidence which demonstrated that a
plan had been hatched to use a substance called
Dioxin to poison Mr
Omar. The trial judge however found that Dioxin is not a poison
and that the plan was not feasible, which
the respondent as a
cardiologist would have known. In addition, the court made a
finding that Mr Van Zyl (who was to deliver
the poison in Cape
Town) flew to Cape Town on 13 May 1989 instead of 13 September 1989
as testified. The state alleges that
this demonstrates that the
court misunderstood much of the evidence presented to it.
(hh) Repeated
mistakes by judge: legal implications
Before this
Court counsel for the state stressed that whereas it is
understandable that some rulings and decisions of a court
could be
incorrect, the trial judge in this matter erred consistently and
dramatically, always in the same direction, to the
extent that it
could only be explained with reference to bias. On behalf of the
respondent it was submitted that when looking
at the cumulative
effect of rulings and findings, one also has to take into account a
number of important rulings which the trial
judge made in favour of
the state.
The following
examples were pointed out:
The judge allowed a commission to take evidence from Mr Webster in
the USA when the accused was not allowed to travel there.
Despite
the threat to fair trial requirements and the possibility that Dr
Basson could be prejudiced by the fact that he was
not in the USA
to hear Mr Websterâs evidence and help counsel respond to it, the
judge nevertheless allowed the trip to go
forward, and the evidence
to be admitted.
The respondent also points to the fact that the judge allowed two
state counsel to cross-examine the accused, which is unusual.
Similarly, in the recusal judgment, the judge points to rulings he
made in favour of the prosecution, for example, his refusal
to
uphold defence objections that the prosecutionâs re-examination
of General Knobel amounted to unfair cross-examination.
Before this Court counsel for the respondent mentioned the judgeâs
dismissal of the defenceâs application in terms of
section 174
of
the
Criminal Procedure Act, at
the end of the stateâs case, as
example of a ruling in favour of the state.
The state
argued that rulings made in its favour which are clearly correct
cannot be weighed in the balance. The question is
whether
incorrect rulings dramatically favoured one side. This is an
assessment that it is almost impossible to make on a trial
record
which extends over 20 000 pages. In our view, the question is
whether the incidents raised by the state appreciated in
their
context establish that the judge was biased or that his conduct
gave rise to a reasonable apprehension of bias.
(ii) Assessment
of challenges regarding mistaken legal rulings and factual findings
In respect of
this second category of complaints, it is clear that at least one
of the trial judgeâs interlocutory rulings was
based on wrong
legal principles and we accept that in many of the examples
referred to by the state another court might have
reached a
different conclusion on the facts. Some aspects of the evidence of
the respondent (for example as to the financial
principals) appear
somewhat improbable to us. However, this Court is not sitting in
judgment on the factual findings made by
the trial court. It is
the issue of bias which has to be adjudicated.
The fact that
a trial judge may make an interlocutory ruling mistakenly does not
provide weighty material to support a conclusion
of bias. Nor does
the judgeâs refusal to exercise his discretion to call further
witnesses. Over 140 witnesses were led in
this case and it cannot
be said that the judgeâs decision not to call the further
witnesses at the stateâs request indicates
any bias at all. As
to the conclusions of fact of which the state complains, it may be
that a different court would have had
a different appreciation of
the facts, but that too cannot found a complaint of bias, unless it
appears that the judgeâs conclusions
are so out of kilter with
the evidence led that they are explicable only on the grounds of
bias. We cannot conclude that that
was the case here.
(d) Conclusion
on the bias challenge
We have
considered cumulatively all the complaints of the state in the
light of the legal principles concerning the law of bias
set out
above. In particular, we are mindful of the difficult task faced
by a litigant who seeks to establish bias on the basis
of the
conduct of a judge during a trial. We are unable to conclude on
the papers before us that any specific ruling or finding
of the
judge, or all the rulings or findings identified by the state
viewed cumulatively, either show actual bias, albeit subconscious,
or give rise to a reasonable perception of bias on the part of the
trial judge. As we have said, it may be that some of the
rulings
made by the judge were mistaken, and that some of his remarks were
ill-considered. The remarks and rulings of which
the state
complains however must be seen in the context of a marathon trial
with all its complexities and human frustrations.
In our view,
viewed in this context, we cannot agree with the state that the
conduct of the trial judge as recorded in the record
could or
should have given rise to a reasonable apprehension of bias on the
part of an observer, nor does it suggest actual bias,
albeit
subconscious, on the part of the judge.
We have
considered all the allegations made by the state upon which it
relies to establish its allegation of bias by the trial
judge. We
have found that the state has not made out a case. In the
circumstances, it is not necessary to decide the question
relating
to whether the state was barred from raising the bias question on
the ground that it did not appeal the recusal decision
of the trial
court immediately. Nor is it necessary to decide the question of
whether the state is limited to the record up
until 4 February
2000.
II
THE ADMISSIBILITY OF THE BAIL RECORD
We have
already found that the issues concerning the admissibility of the
bail record do raise constitutional matters.
76
There are two issues raised by the state in relation to the bail
record. The first relates to the fact that the High Court
considered the admissibility of the bail record before the trial
had in fact commenced and before the state had made any application
to admit the record. The second relates to the High Courtâs
conclusion that the admission of the bail record would render
the
trial unfair.
In response to
the first issue, the timing of the consideration of the admission
of the bail record, the SCA held that the fact
that this happened
prior to the beginning of the trial rather than thereafter could
not have had an effect on the outcome of
the case.
77
We agree with the SCA in this regard, in particular, because no
matter how the judgment was formulated by the High Court, it
is
clear that a decision to exclude evidence is an interlocutory
decision which can be revisited at any stage during the trial.
As
we find below, it was open to the state to reapply for the
admission of the bail record, or parts of it, at relevant times
during the trial. In our view, therefore, the timing of the
hearing of the application to exclude the bail record is not a
matter upon which the state can succeed on appeal. We turn now to
consider the second question â the decision by the trial
judge to
exclude the record of the bail proceedings.
In our
preliminary judgment in this matter, we held that in deciding
whether to admit a bail record a judge exercises a discretion
which
must be exercised in the light of what is fair in the
circumstances.
78
The first question we must then consider is the proper approach of
an appeal court to the exercise of such a discretion by the
High
Court. Once that question is determined, this Court will have to
consider whether on the approach identified the stateâs
appeal on
this leg has prospects of success. Before turning to the question
of the approach on appeal to the exercise of a discretion
by the
High Court, it might be helpful to set out briefly the law on the
admissibility of bail records as it applied in this
case.
(a) The law as
to the admissibility of bail records in criminal proceedings
Section
60(11B)(c)
of the
Criminal Procedure Act provides
as follows:
â
The record of the bail
proceedings . . . shall form part of the record of the trial of the
accused following upon such bail proceedings:
Provided that if the
accused elects to testify during the course of the bail proceedings
the court must inform him or her of the
fact that anything he or she
says, may be used against him or her at his or her trial and such
evidence becomes admissible in any
subsequent proceedings.â
This provision was
not in force at the time of the bail proceedings against the accused
but had come into force at the time of the
trial.
79
In
S v Dlamini; S v Dladla and Others; S v Joubert; S v
Schietekat
,
80
this Court held that this provision should not be interpreted to
deprive a trial court of its discretion to exclude admissible
evidence that would otherwise render the trial unfair. Kriegler J
reasoned as follows:
â
Provided trial courts remain
alert to their duty to exclude evidence that would impair the
fairness of the proceedings before them,
there can be no risk that
evidence unfairly elicited at bail hearings could be used to
undermine accused personsâ rights to be
tried fairly. It follows
that there is no inevitable conflict between
s 60(11B)(c)
of the CPA
and any provision of the Constitution. Subsection (11B)(c) must, of
course, be used subject to the accusedâs right
to a fair trial and
the corresponding obligation on the judicial officer presiding at
the trial to exclude evidence, the admission
of which would render
the trial unfair.â
81
The High Court
relied upon this reasoning when it concluded that the admission of
the bail record as evidence in the criminal
trial would result in
an unfair trial. In reaching this conclusion, the judge relied on
a range of considerations particularly
the fact that the prosecutor
had acted unfairly in the bail proceedings by preventing the
accused from having access to documents
in the stateâs
possession; and the fact that much of the questioning of the
accused in the bail hearing was undertaken only
for the purpose of
laying a foundation for cross-examination in the subsequent trial.
82
(b) The
approach of an appeal court to the exclusion of a bail record
This Court has
held that it is the trial court that is best placed to determine
what will constitute a fair trial or not.
83
Quite clearly, in this case, the trial judge decided that the
admission of the bail record would render the proceedings unfair
and accordingly exercised his discretion to exclude the record.
The question that arises is what approach an appeal court should
take to the exercise of such a discretion.
On ordinary
principles, the question of the approach of an appellate court to
the exercise of discretion by another court depends
upon the nature
of the discretion concerned.
84
Where the discretion is a âstrongâ discretion or âtrueâ
discretion in the sense that there are a range of options available
to the court exercising the discretion,
85
an appellate court will only interfere with the exercise of that
discretion where it is shown thatâ
â
. . . the lower court had
not exercised its discretion judicially, or that it had been
influenced by wrong principles or a misdirection
on the facts, or
that it had reached a decision which in the result could not
reasonably have been made by a court properly directing
itself to
all the relevant facts and principles.â
86
This Court has
held that an appellate court would only interfere with the exercise
of a discretion by a lower court, with regard
to the refusal of a
postponement
87
and the refusal of an application for condonation,
88
if such discretion had not been exercised judicially or if it were
to have been influenced by wrong principles or a misdirection
on
the facts.
89
In addition,
however, it should be noted that there are other considerations
relevant to determining the approach of an appellate
court to the
exercise of a discretion which is not a discretion in the strict
sense. In
Media Workers Association
, for example,
Grosskopf JA noted that:
â
In passing I should state,
lest I be misunderstood, that even where a decision is not
discretionary in the narrow sense considered
above, there may be
features in the nature of the decision or the composition of the
tribunal
a quo
which might call for restraint by a Court of
appeal in the exercise of its powers. Such restraint would then,
however, be exercised
for policy reasons, and would not, as with
discretionary decisions, flow necessarily from the nature of the
decision appealed against.â
90
Even if a
discretion is not a discretion in the strict sense, there may be
circumstances in which a court will nevertheless adopt
an approach
on appeal which will overturn the lower courtâs decision only if
it has not been judicially made, or based on incorrect
principles of
law or a misappreciation of the facts. It is necessary to consider
now the nature of the discretion at issue in
relation to the
exclusion of the bail record by the trial court.
Under our
constitutional order, a trial court may exclude otherwise
admissible evidence on the basis that it may render the trial
unfair in order to protect the right to a fair trial.
91
There can be no doubt that it is the duty of the trial court to
ensure that the trial is fair in substance and the trial court
is
obliged to give content to this notion.
92
In considering the approach to the exercise of discretion to
exclude otherwise admissible evidence in order to ensure a fair
trial upon appeal, it should be borne in mind that trial judges
must be given freedom to exercise this discretion fairly on their
understanding of the case before them. Courts must be slow to
adopt rules which would straight-jacket a trial judge in the
exercise of that discretion.
When a trial
court assesses the question whether the admission of evidence would
render the trial unfair, it has to consider a
range of factors: the
nature of the evidence in question, and how much of it is of
advantage to the parties; the need to be fair
not only to the
accused but also to the prosecution, in the interests of the
broader community; the need to ensure that a trial
can run
efficiently and reasonably quickly; and the reasons underlying the
fact that the admission of the evidence may render
the trial
unfair. These are complex factors which may well pull in different
directions. If the evidence is wrongly admitted
and the trial is
rendered unfair, the accused will clearly have a right to raise
that on appeal and the question for an appeal
court will be whether
the trial was unfair. The more difficult question arises, as in
this case, where the evidence is excluded
on the basis that its
admission may render the trial unfair. An assessment of whether
the evidence would have rendered the trial
unfair is inevitably
hypothetical and difficult to assess in the relatively rarefied
atmosphere of an appellate court. It is
indeed a matter which the
trial court is best placed to judge.
In these
circumstances, it seems clear that this is an appropriate case in
which an appellate court should be slow to interfere
with the
decision of the trial court. The trial court identified the
following considerations as relevant to the decision of
whether to
admit the bail record: whether the accused was properly warned in
terms of section 60(11B)(c), which the court noted
was not
applicable in this case as that provision had not come into force
at the time of the bail hearing; whether the prosecutor
had acted
fairly in cross-examining the accused during the bail hearing;
93
the duty on the prosecutor to ensure that an accused is not
unnecessarily deprived of documents in the stateâs possession
where withholding the documents would prejudice the accused unduly;
and whether in the extraordinary factual circumstances of
the case
(in which the accused had previously been examined at length by the
OSEO, the length of time since the events had occurred
and the
failure to permit the accused an opportunity during the bail
hearing to consult documents in the prosecution docket)
the stateâs
conduct was fair towards the accused.
The court
concluded that it was unfair of the prosecutor to withhold
documents from the accused during the bail hearing and that
it
would not have been prejudicial to the state for those documents to
have been provided to the accused at the bail hearing.
It also
concluded that the extensive cross-examination by the prosecutor in
circumstances where the accused had conceded that
the state had a
prima facie case against him was solely for the purposes of
creating a platform for cross-examination during
the trial and that
that was unfair to the accused.
In deciding to
exclude the record, the court did take into account that the bail
record can be a useful tool for the state and
that it should not
lightly be deprived of such a tool. The court concluded however
that the cumulative effect of the stateâs
conduct during the bail
hearing was such that it would be unfair to the accused to admit
the bail record and that it should therefore
be excluded. The
state also argued in the High Court that those portions of the
record which were tainted should be excised
and the remainder of
the record admitted. In response to this, the trial court held
that such an exercise would be time-consuming
and impractical.
In this Court,
the state argued that the decision of the High Court to exclude the
bail record in its entirety was wrong. This
Court has held that
the test on appeal is not whether the trial court was correct in
the exercise of its discretion to exclude
evidence on the grounds
that it may render the trial unfair. The question is whether, as
this Court formulated it in
National Coalition for Gay and
Lesbian Equality and Others v Minister of Home Affairs and Others
,
94
the lower court has not exercised its discretion judicially, or
been influenced by wrong principles of law or a misdirection on
the
facts, or reached a decision which could not reasonably have been
made by a court properly directing itself to all the relevant
facts
and legal principles.
In considering
the reasons given by the High Court for its decision to exclude the
bail record, we cannot say that that discretion
was not judicially
exercised. It may be that another court would have come to a
different conclusion, or decided that the issue
of the bail record
should be decided at a later stage in the trial. However, the
state has not pointed to a misdirection on
the facts, or the
mistaken application of legal principles which would render it
appropriate for this Court to interfere with
the High Courtâs
decision on the matter.
The state
argued in this Court that the record of the bail proceedings would
have been admissible despite the provisions of section
5(8) of the
OSEO Act.
95
However, the state had conceded before the trial court that
certain of the evidence would not have been admissible. It now
seeks to change its stance and argue that all the evidence was
admissible. In our view, it cannot be said that the conclusion
of
the judge to exclude the bail record was based on wrong principles
of law sufficient to enable this Court to intervene on
appeal. The
court reached its decision after a wide-ranging consideration of
factors relevant to fairness including its view
of the fairness of
the bail proceedings. Its decision was based on its assessment of
fairness not on the provisions of the OSEO
Act. In our view, and
for the reasons given in the preceding paragraphs, the state has
not made out a case for us to interfere
with that decision on
appeal.
It should be
noted that although the state did argue in this Court that the
admission of the bail record may have materially affected
the
outcome, it did not argue that the exclusion of the bail record
resulted in an unfair trial. Although it is clear that the
Constitution requires a trial to be fair towards both the accused
and the state,
96
an allegation that an interlocutory ruling was wrongly made which
may have had a material impact on the outcome of a case is
not
sufficient to demonstrate that the trial was unfair.
It is clear
that the decision by the trial court was an interlocutory one which
could have been revisited at any point during
the trial. To the
extent that counsel for the state argued that it was not possible
or practicable for the issue to be revisited
during the trial
proceedings that argument must be rejected. Indeed, the state did
make one such application to revisit the
decision. During its
closing argument it noted that the defence criticisms of a state
witness, General Knobel, had not been
put to him during
cross-examination and that they were contrary to the evidence of
the accused in the bail hearing. It applied
for that portion of
the bail record to be admitted to refute the criticism but the
court refused that application. At any stage,
therefore, the state
was entitled to approach the court to ask for a reconsideration of
the ruling in the light, for example,
of a specific statement by
the accused which contradicted his evidence-in-chief in the bail
hearing. Other than the one instance
referred to, no such
applications were made during the cross-examination of the accused
or any other witness.
If such
applications had been made, the trial court would have been obliged
to consider them and the question of whether the relevant
aspect of
the bail record should have been admitted in evidence would have
been considered in the light of the circumstances
of that
application, as they were in the case of the stateâs application
in respect of General Knobel. In the absence of such
specific
applications by the state, we are not in a position to assess
whether there were aspects of the evidence in the bail
proceedings
which were admissible and material in the trial. Nor was the trial
judge in a position to make such an assessment.
His decision
cannot therefore be criticised on that ground. Given the
interlocutory nature of the ruling on the bail record,
and given
that it cannot be said to have not been judicially made, or based
on wrong principles of law or a mistaken view of
the facts, we
cannot conclude that the exclusion of the bail record by the trial
court rendered the trial unfair.
In all the
circumstances, we conclude therefore that the appeal in so far as
it relates to the correctness of the High Courtâs
decision to
exclude the bail record from the evidence in the trial of the
accused must be dismissed.
III THE
QUASHING OF THE CHARGES
The state
petitioned the SCA for the reservation of further questions of law.
These questions included question 11 which sought
to appeal
against the order of the High Court upholding the exception to the
indictment on the basis that it did not disclose
an offence. That
question reads as follows:
â
Whether the trial court
erred in law by finding that on a proper interpretation of s
18(2)(a) of the Riotous Assemblies Act 17 of
1956, the court did not
have the power to adjudicate on a conspiracy within South Africa to
commit an offence beyond its borders
and consequently quashed
charges 31, 46, 54, 55, 58 and 61â. (applicantâs translation)
As the
petition had certain defects, the state had to apply for
condonation. The SCA refused the petition and the application
for
condonation. It found that the defects in the petition and the
application for condonation were in themselves sufficient
reason to
refuse condonation without considering the merits of the petition.
However, it did not decide the case on that basis
alone but
proceeded to consider the merits of the petition.
Relying upon
the decision in
R v Adams and Others
,
97
it held that it was not competent for the state to reserve a
question of law pursuant to the quashing of the charges, as the
order of the High Court did not amount to an acquittal or
conviction of the accused.
98
This conclusion meant that the SCA effectively had no jurisdiction
to entertain the appeal on this ground. It was accordingly
a
material conclusion which had a substantial effect on the approach
of the SCA to the petition. Having reached this conclusion
after
full consideration of the rule in
Adams,
it added, somewhat
as an afterthought that even if the rule in
Adams
were not a
bar, it would, in any event, exercise its discretion against
reserving the questions of law sought to be reserved.
For this
conclusion it cited, as reasons, the fact that: the application for
reservation had not been made within a reasonable
time after the
charges were quashed; that the state indicated after judgment that
it was not going to appeal; that the state
did not address any
argument on the trial courtâs interpretation of section 18(2)(a);
and the fact that the trial court dismissed
some of the evidence
upon which the state based the quashed charges.
This being an
application for leave to appeal, it must comply with the standard
for determining such applications. In the first
place the
application must raise a constitutional matter. We have already
held that the question whether it was competent for
the state to
appeal against the order of the High Court upholding an exception
to the indictment in terms of
section 319(1)
of the
Criminal
Procedure Act, is
a constitutional matter.
99
The other requirement is that it must be in the interests of
justice to grant such leave. The prospects of success form an
important component of this requirement, though not decisive. The
consideration of the prospects of success requires us to consider
the issues raised by the application in relation to both the
refusal of the application for condonation and the petition for
leave to appeal.
(a) Preliminary
legal questions
As a result of
the approach of the SCA, it becomes necessary for this Court to
consider five different preliminary legal questions
connected with
the quashing of the charges. The following issues thus need
consideration:
(i) whether the
appeal lies against the decision of the SCA or of the High Court;
(ii) the validity
of the
Adams
rule;
(iii) the proper
approach to appeals against a decision by the SCA refusing
condonation;
(iv) whether the
SCAâs refusal to reserve question 11 should be overturned; and
(v) the nature of
the charges and South Africaâs international law obligations.
We shall deal with
each of these in turn. The first four raise a series of complex
procedural and jurisdictional questions.
The fifth concerns the
relevance, if any, of the fact that the quashed charges related to
what in argument were referred to as
war crimes.
(i) Does an
appeal lie against the decision of the SCA or the High Court?
As pointed out
earlier, the SCA refused the application for condonation for three
inter-related reasons: firstly, because of non-compliance
with its
rules; secondly, because it held that in the light of the
Adams
rule it lacked jurisdiction to consider the quashing of the charges
by the High Court; and thirdly, in the exercise of its discretion
whether to reserve a question of law. The prospects of success
required the court to consider whether it had jurisdiction to
entertain an appeal against the decision of the High Court
upholding an exception to an indictment. This question turned upon
the proper interpretation of
section 319
of the
Criminal Procedure
Act. We
have already held that the proper interpretation of
section 319
of the
Criminal Procedure Act raises
a constitutional
matter.
100
In refusing condonation, therefore, the SCA also decided the
underlying constitutional issue relating to its jurisdiction.
And
it is this constitutional issue that we are required to consider in
this application. This fact immediately distinguishes
this case
from
Mabaso v Law Society, Northern Provinces, and Another
101
in which the SCA did not consider or decide the underlying
constitutional question.
In
Mabaso
âs
case, this Court was concerned with a decision of the SCA refusing
condonation because of non-compliance with its rules and
lack of
prospects of success on the merits. However, in deciding whether
there were prospects of success, the SCA did not decide
the
underlying constitutional issue, namely, the constitutional
validity of section 20 of the Attorneys Act, 53 of 1979. And
it
was that issue which the applicant in
Mabaso
âs case sought
to have considered by this Court. It was against this background
that this Court held that in such a case the
appeal ought properly
to lie against the decision of the High Court which had decided the
underlying constitutional issue. In
this regard the Court held:
â
Where an appeal to the SCA
has failed because the SCA has refused condonation for a failure to
comply with its Rules, without a
consideration of the constitutional
matter, it is our view that whatever the position may have been
under the old Rules, something
which the Court has not yet
determined, the new procedure under Rule 19 should be construed to
require an applicant to apply for
leave to appeal to this Court
against the decision of the High Court, rather than the decision of
the SCA refusing condonation.
This approach would protect the
inherent power of the SCA, as confirmed by the Constitution, âto
protect and regulate [its]
own processâ. It would avoid this
Court having regularly to second-guess the SCA when it refuses
condonation which might undermine
the SCAâs autonomous regulation
of its own process.â
102
(footnotes omitted)
Swartbooi
and Others v Brink and Another (1)
103
is also distinguishable. In that case this Court was concerned
with a refusal of a petition for leave to appeal by the SCA where
the SCA gave no reasons for its decision. In such a case, this
Court held that the appeal lies not against the decision of the
SCA, but against the decision of the High Court. It held that
sub-rule 18(1) of the old rules of this Court which expressly
provided that it applies to appeals against decisions of courts
other than the SCA âirrespective of whether . . . the SCA has
refused leave . . . to appealâ, was applicable.
104
It further held that sub-rule 18(1) was designed to allow parties
to come to this Court where the SCA had refused the petition
for
leave to appeal without giving reasons. Both
Mabaso
and
Swartbooi
therefore stand for the proposition that where the
SCA refuses leave to appeal without considering the underlying
constitutional
issue, the appeal in relation to that constitutional
issue lies against the decision of the High Court which decided
that issue.
The respondent
also sought to rely on the decision of this Court in
Mphahlele v
First National Bank of SA Ltd
,
105
in which, it was argued, this Court held that the refusal of a
petition for leave to appeal to the SCA is not appealable.
106
Section 21(3)(d) of the Supreme Court Act, 59 of 1959 provides
that the decision of the SCA to grant or refuse an application
for
leave to appeal is final.
107
Clearly this subsection must now be construed consistently with
the Constitution. It means that in non-constitutional matters,
the
decision of the SCA is final. It cannot mean that in
constitutional matters, a decision of the SCA refusing a petition
for leave to appeal is final.
In
Swartbooi
,
the Court stated, with reference to
Mphahleleâs
caseâ
â
that the refusal of a
petition for leave to appeal to the SCA is not appealable. When the
SCA refuses to grant leave to appeal
in a case, the appeal to this
Court is not an appeal against the SCAâs refusal of leave to
appeal to it but an appeal against
the High Court decision itself.â
108
But the respondent
has taken this sentence out of context. Construed in the context
of the reasoning in the rest of
Swartbooi
and
Mphahlele
,
this statement should not be construed to mean that the decision of
the SCA is final and not appealable even where the SCA has
dealt
with a constitutional matter in the course of its judgment refusing
leave. Such an interpretation would frustrate the
constitutional
purpose of ensuring that this Court is the final court of appeal in
constitutional matters. The respondentâs
submission on this
basis therefore must be rejected.
It follows
therefore that in the present case the appeal lies against the
decision of the SCA because it refused condonation after
deciding,
among other issues, the underlying constitutional issue, namely,
whether it had jurisdiction to entertain an appeal
under
section
319
of the
Criminal Procedure Act against
the decision of the High
Court upholding an exception. We proceed now to consider the rule
in
Adams.
(ii) The Adams
rule
(aa) Origin and
application of the rule
The
Adams
case involved questions of law that were reserved for consideration
by the Appellate Division at the instance of the accused.
109
The questions related to an exception taken against an indictment
and an application to quash the indictment. The court below
had
declined to allow the exception but reserved questions of law and
postponed the trial. In the Appellate Division, one of
the points
taken by the state was that the Appellate Division had no
jurisdiction at that stage of the proceedings to decide
questions
of law reserved. The question that the Appellate Division had to
consider was the time at which the request for the
reservation of
the question of law may be made under section 366 of the Criminal
Procedure Act, 66 of 1955, the predecessor of
section 319 of the
Criminal Procedure Act.
The court
accepted that the relevant subsection was silent on the matter.
Relying upon other provisions of section 366 and, in
particular,
the long-established legislative and judicial policy of not
allowing midstream appeals, the Appellate Division held
that a
question of law may only be reserved at the conclusion of a trial
after the conviction or acquittal of the accused. And
in response
to the suggestion by the court below that the state has a right to
seek the reservation of a question of law on a
successful exception
or objection to an indictment, the court held:
â
In my view the only right
conferred upon the prosecutor is to apply for a reservation in his
own favour in the case of an acquittal
or in favour of an accused in
the case of a conviction. If an exception or objection to his
indictment is upheld, he can amend
it or present a new indictment,
and in a suitable case resort may be had to the procedure under sec.
385 of the Act. Because of
these remedies available to the
prosecutor it is even more unlikely than in the case of an accused
that the Legislature could have
intended to vest him with a right,
not possessed by him before, and unrestricted by the fact that the
trial has not been concluded.â
110
The
Adams
rule therefore holds that a question of law can only be
reserved following the acquittal or conviction of the accused. The
effect
of the rule is that a question of law cannot be reserved
following an order upholding an exception to an indictment because
such
an order is neither an acquittal nor a conviction of an
accused.
This rule has
been followed in a number of subsequent decisions of the Appellate
Division;
111
significantly though, not without reservations. In
S v Mene
,
it was accepted that section 319 is capable of another construction
and that the one given in the
Adams
case has resulted in a
lacuna.
112
The Appellate Division however held that this is a matter for the
legislature to rectify.
113
A similar observation was made by the SCA in the present case but
the court declined to find that the
Adams
case was wrongly
decided in view of the other decisions that had followed it.
114
Applying the
Adams
rule, the SCA held that it was not competent for the
state to reserve a question of law concerning the upholding of the
exception
to the charges under section 18(2) of the Riotous
Assemblies Act under section 319 of the Criminal Procedure Act.
This is so,
it reasoned, because a question of law could only be
reserved at the request of the state upon conviction or acquittal
of the
accused, and an order upholding an exception to a charge was
neither a conviction nor an acquittal. This is the essence of the
Adams
rule. It is this rule that presented the state with
an insurmountable hurdle. And it is this hurdle that we are now
invited
to remove.
(bb) The proper
construction of section 319
Section 319 of
the Criminal Procedure Act provides:
â
(1) If any question of law
arises on the trial in a superior court of any person for any
offence, that court may of its own motion
or at the request either
of the prosecutor or the accused reserve that question for the
consideration of the Appellate Division,
and thereupon the
first-mentioned court shall state the question reserved and shall
direct that it be specially entered in the
record and that a copy
thereof be transmitted to the registrar of the Appellate Division.
(2) The grounds upon which any
objection to an indictment is taken shall, for the purposes of this
section, be deemed to be questions
of law.
(3) The provisions of sections
317(2), (4) and (5) and 318(2) shall apply mutatis mutandis with
reference to all proceedings under
this section.â
One of the
consequences of the advent of our constitutional democracy is the
requirement that all laws must be construed in the
light of the
Constitution. This requirement flows from the supremacy of the
Constitution.
115
It is thus axiomatic that, where possible, legislation must be
construed in a manner that will bring it within constitutional
bounds.
116
Thus, when legislation is capable of more than one possible
construction, the one that brings the legislation within the
Constitution
ought to be preferred.
117
And, as this Court observed in
Daniels
â
â
. . . when dealing with old
order legislation, this interpretive injunction may require courts
to depart from a construction previously
placed on the
legislation.â
118
It follows
therefore that section 319(1) must be construed in the light of the
Constitution, in particular, the constitutional
duty of the state
to initiate criminal proceedings. Section 179(2) of the
Constitution confers on the state the authority to
institute
criminal proceedings and provides:
â
The prosecuting authority
has the power to institute criminal proceedings on behalf of the
state, and to carry out any necessary
functions incidental to
instituting criminal proceedings.â
And section
179(4) provides that:
â
National legislation must
ensure that the prosecuting authority exercises its functions
without fear, favour or prejudice.â
It flows from
section 179(2), the stateâs power to institute criminal
proceedings, that the prosecution of crime is a matter
of
importance to the state.
119
It enables the state to fulfil its constitutional obligations to
prosecute those offences that threaten or infringe the rights
of
citizens. And by providing for an independent prosecuting
authority with power to institute criminal proceedings on behalf
of
the state, the Constitution makes it plain that effective
prosecution of crime is an important constitutional objective.
It is plain
from the legislative history of section 319 that its purpose was,
amongst others, to allow the state to appeal on
a point of law by
requesting the reservation of a question of law. The original
section 372 of the Criminal Procedure and Evidence
Act, 31 of 1917
made it clear that a question of law could be reserved and stated
only in the case of a conviction. In
R v Herbst
the
Appellate Division held that a question of law could only be
reserved under section 372 if the accused had been convicted.
120
The practical effect of this decision was that the prosecutor
could not request the reservation of any question of law at all
on
behalf of the state.
121
In 1948 the
legislature intervened by enacting the Criminal Procedure Amendment
Act, 37 of 1948. This statute substituted a new
section for
section 372. The substituted section omitted the reference to the
conviction of the accused which was to be found
in subsection 2 of
the original section 372. The effect of this was that the
statement of a question of law reserved was no
longer conditional
only upon the conviction of the accused. In addition, the
substituted section 372 made the provisions of
subsections 2 to 6
of section 370 and section 371(2) applicable to the reservation of
questions of law. The Criminal Procedure
Amendment Act also
substituted a new section for section 374. It was plain from the
new section 374 that the state could also
reserve a question of
law. Subsection 3 of the new section 374 dealt with the powers of
courts in the case where âa question
of law has been reserved on
the application of a prosecutor in the case of an acquittalâ and
a decision was given in favour
of the state.
122
The amendments
introduced by the 1948 Criminal Procedure Amendment Act were no
doubt intended to address the legal position that
prevailed prior
to the amendment. That position was that the prosecutor could at
no stage request the reservation of any question
of law at all on
behalf of the state. The amendment altered this position by
allowing the prosecutor to request the reservation
of a question of
law on behalf of the state. This legislative history of section
319 makes it clear that it was intended to
afford the state the
right to appeal a question of law to the SCA. This right is
incidental to the right of the state to institute
criminal
proceedings provided for in section 179(2) of the Constitution.
But was it intended that this right is available only
in limited
circumstances?
There are
indications both in the language of section 319(1) and in the
context in which the section occurs, that this was not
the case.
Section 319(1) provides that if âany question of law arises on
the trial in a superior courtâ, the court may of
its own motion
or at the request of the prosecutor or accused reserve that
question for consideration by the SCA. There is nothing
in this
language to suggest that the state may only request the reservation
of questions directed at the conviction or acquittal
of the
accused. Section 319(2) indeed strongly suggests that the
legislature intended to permit an appeal against any order
upholding or dismissing an objection by way of a reservation of a
question of law. The subsection provides that â[t]he grounds
upon which any objection to an indictment is taken shall, for the
purposes of [section 319] be deemed to be questions of law.â
In holding
that a question of law can only be reserved at the conclusion of a
trial, the court in
Adams
relied, among other factors, upon
the long-established legislative and judicial policy which
precluded piecemeal appeals to the
Appellate Division.
123
The problem of midstream appeals does not arise where the only
charge against an accused is quashed by the High Court. The
quashing of such a charge brings the proceedings to an end. Yet
the
Adams
rule maintains that there is no right of appeal in
such situations because an order upholding an exception is neither
an acquittal
nor a conviction. Even in those cases where there are
multiple charges, the quashed charge or charges may have no
relation to
the remaining charges. In such a case, there is no
reason why the trial should not proceed in relation to the
remaining charges
while the question of law arising from the
quashing of the charges is taken on appeal. Where the exception is
dismissed, fairness
may require that the accused not be subjected
to a full-blown trial where in fact the exception is well founded.
The effect of
the
Adams
rule is to take away the right of the state to
appeal against an order of the High Court upholding an objection
that a charge
does not disclose an offence in law. The court
suggested that if an objection to an indictment is upheld, the
state can amend
the indictment or present a new one. But this does
not overcome the situation where, as here, the order upholding the
objection
has the effect of barring the state from prosecuting the
accused on the charges which were quashed.
124
The effect of
the
Adams
rule is not only to prevent the state from
instituting criminal proceedings where a court quashes an
indictment on the ground
that it does not disclose an offence, but
it also takes away the right of the state to appeal against a
decision upholding an
exception to its indictment for another
reason.
125
Such an interpretation of section 319 is inconsistent with the
right of the state to institute criminal proceedings and thus
with
the Constitution. In addition, such an interpretation is
inconsistent with both the purpose and language of section 319,
namely, to allow the state to appeal a question of law arising from
an order upholding an exception to an indictment. We agree
with
the observations made by the court in
Mene
and in the court
below that section 319 is capable of another construction.
In our view
section 319 should not be construed so as to prevent an appeal
against an order dismissing or upholding an exception.
The section
should be construed so as to allow the state or the accused to
appeal against an order upholding or dismissing an
exception. Such
a construction of section 319 brings it within constitutional
bounds by recognising the right of the state to
institute criminal
proceedings and, if need be, to appeal an adverse finding on a
question of law. It is this construction of
section 319 which must
be adopted. It follows therefore that section 319 did not prevent
the SCA from considering an appeal
against the order of the High
Court quashing the charges relating to the conspiracy. The SCA
therefore erred in concluding that
the
Adams
rule
constituted a bar to the reservation of the question of law
relating to the quashing of the charges.
Before going
further, it is important now to consider the proper approach of an
appellate court to an application for leave to
appeal in respect of
a refusal of condonation by another court. It is to that question
that we now turn.
(iii) The
proper approach to appeals against the decision of the SCA refusing
condonation
(aa) An
appellate courtâs review of discretion
The question
whether condonation should be granted or refused involves the
exercise of discretion.
126
When an appellate court is called upon to review the exercise of
discretion, the scope of review is determined by the nature
of the
discretion involved. A distinction is generally drawn between a
discretion in the true or strict sense of the word and
a discretion
in the sense that the court must have regard to a number of factors
before coming to a decision.
127
In
Shepstone & Wylie and Others v Geyser NO
128
the SCA explained this distinction and said:
â
To say, for example, that
the Court has a discretion to grant or refuse an interim interdict
means no more than that âthe Court
is entitled to have regard to a
number of disparate and incommensurable features in coming to a
conclusionâ. . . . In such cases
the Court of appeal is at liberty
to decide the matter according to its own views of the merits. . . .
Accordingly, whenever such
a Court is asked to interfere, the nature
of the discretion must first be ascertained. This will not be a
simple exercise where
a discretion is conferred in a statute by the
use of the word âmayâ which, standing on its own, is not
particularly informative.â
129
In
Mabaso
,
130
this Court held that the exercise of a discretion to grant or
refuse condonation is a discretion in this strict sense â a court
has to weigh a number of factors relevant to the applications.
Factors that are relevant in considering applications for
condonation
have been set out in a number of decisions of the SCA.
One that comes to mind is
Federated Employers Fire and General
Insurance Co Ltd and Another v McKenzie
,
131
where the court said:
â
In considering petitions for
condonation under Rule 13, the factors usually weighed by the Court
include the degree of non-compliance,
the explanation therefor, the
importance of the case, the prospects of success, the respondentâs
interest in the finality of
his judgment, the convenience of the
Court and the avoidance of unnecessary delay in the administration
of justice . . . . The
cogency of any such factor will vary
according to the circumstances, including the particular Rule
infringed. Thus, a badly prepared
record â Rule 5(7) to (10) â
involves both the convenience of the Court and the standard of its
proceedings in the administration
of justice. A belated appeal
against a criminal conviction â Rule 5(5) â may keenly affect
the public interest in the matter
of the lawâs delays. On the
other hand the late filing of the record in a civil case more
closely concerns the respondent, who
is allowed to extend the time
under Rule 5(4)(c). The late filing of a notice of appeal
particularly affects the respondentâs
interest in the finality of
his judgment â the time for noting an appeal having elapsed, he is
prima facie
entitled to adjust his affairs on the footing
that his judgment is safeâ.
132
The crucial
factors that have to be considered include the degree of
non-compliance and the explanation therefor, the importance
of the
case and the prospects of success. A court considering an appeal
against the exercise of such a discretion, therefore,
must consider
whether the discretion was judicially exercised, and consider
whether it was based on wrong principles of law,
or a mistaken view
of the facts and not consider how it would have exercised the
discretion were it to be considering the matter
anew.
133
(bb) The
degree of non-compliance and explanation therefor
The SCA found
that the petition for leave to appeal that was filed did not comply
with rule 6
134
of its rules in that it did not have a notice of motion and a
founding affidavit. In addition, it did not succinctly and fairly
set out the stateâs case. A further application that was lodged
to rectify these defects was also defective in that it had
no
prayer for substitution, it failed to call upon the respondent to
file an answer and it incorporated in large part the original
application. In addition, there was no separate application for
condonation as required by rule 12; instead the request for
condonation was addressed in the course of the substitute
application. And finally there were missing pages. The SCA found
that these defects were so serious that they would have justified
the refusal of the application for condonation.
In the SCA it
was common cause that the defects in the application for leave to
appeal were so serious that they would have justified
the refusal
of condonation. In this Court, however, the state sought to
minimise the seriousness of the defects, describing
them only as
formal defects. These defects must be viewed against the fact that
the very first document that was lodged as a
petition for leave to
appeal was defective. The second document lodged to remove the
defects was also defective. The state
failed to succinctly and
fairly state its case. Instead, it filed volumes of documents
which the court was required to go through
in order to establish
the case that was sought to be made. In these circumstances the
finding by the SCA that the defects were
serious cannot be
gainsaid.
The
explanation for the defects was two-fold. First, it was said that
it was not clear to the state whether a petition or an
application
was required. Second, it was said that the legal representatives
of the state who handled the matter did not have
experience in the
practice of the SCA. Both these explanations must be rejected.
The rules of the SCA set out what is required
of the petition for
leave to appeal, which in effect is an application for leave to
appeal. It is apparent from the decisions
of the SCA that
litigants have not been complying with the rules of the SCA
governing petitions for leave to appeal. This prompted
the SCA to
issue âgeneral direction[s] as to the proper drafting of a
petition for leave to appeal.â
135
This was prompted by what the SCA described as âa current
tendency for petitions to be prepared in this âlazyâ wayâ.
136
Practitioners who litigate in the SCA are required to acquaint
themselves with the rules of that court as well as its practice.
Although it
may be that at times a defective petition is of itself sufficient
to warrant the refusal of condonation,
137
condonation was not refused in this case on this basis alone.
Perhaps the most important factor upon which the SCA based its
decision was the rule in
Adams,
138
discussed above. To the extent that its understanding of the
Adams
rule was a material factor in reaching the decision to refuse
condonation, it is our view that the decision was based on a wrong
principle of law of sufficient significance to render the decision
appealable. However, the SCA also based its decision on other
factors which we turn to consider briefly now.
(iv) Should the
refusal by the SCA to reserve question 11 in the exercise of its
discretion be overturned?
Having
concluded that the
Adams
rule did constitute a bar to the
reservation of the question of law relating to the quashing, the
SCA went on to reason that even
if the rule in
Adams
did
not, it would nevertheless exercise its discretion against the
reservation of the question. In reaching this conclusion,
the SCA
was influenced by four factors, namely, that there was an
unreasonable delay in making the application for the reservation
of
the question of law, the state had indicated after judgment that it
would not appeal, the state did not address any argument
on the
High Courtâs interpretation of section 18(2)(a), and the trial
court dismissed some of the evidence upon which the state
based the
quashed charges.
In terms of
section 319(1) a trial court has a discretion whether to reserve a
question of law or not. A refusal to reserve
a question of law may
be taken on appeal to the SCA. This may be done in terms of
section 319(3)
139
read with section 317(5)
140
and read further with section 316(11)-(15).
141
On appeal, the SCA has to determine whether the trial court erred
in the exercise of its discretion under section 319(1). If
the SCA
finds that the trial court erred in the exercise of its discretion,
it must itself exercise the discretion that the trial
court should
have exercised.
On behalf of
the state it was contended that the discretion involved in
considering an application for reservation of a question
of law
under section 319(1) is not a discretion in the true or strict
sense of the word. This is not a matter we need to decide
in this
case. Even if it is a discretion in the strict sense, that
discretion must be exercised judicially and on the basis
of correct
principles of law and on a proper consideration of all the relevant
facts.
The first
factor upon which the SCA based its conclusion that it would not
exercise its discretion in favour of the reservation
of the
question of law, related to the delay by the state in pursuing the
reservation of the question. In our view, however,
the SCA
overlooked the fact that had the state attempted to appeal through
the reservation of a question of law the quashing
of the charges
immediately, the
Adams
rule might well have prevented an
appeal midstream. The state would have had to wait until the
proceedings had been concluded.
Once it is accepted, as it must
be, that the
Adams
rule might well have prevented the state
from appealing the decision of the High Court or appealing
midstream, the stateâs
delay in prosecuting the appeal cannot be
the subject of sharp criticism.
The second
reason given for the decision of the SCA, the fact that the state
indicated at the time the charges were quashed that
it would not
appeal, is apparently based upon the statement by the prosecution
made after the trial courtâs order quashing
charges 31, 46, 54,
55, 58 and 61. Counsel for the prosecution apparently stated that
the state âdoes not intend to appeal
at this stage against your
judgment.â
142
This statement was made when the trial resumed after the state had
been given time to consider whether to appeal or not. All
that
this statement seems to convey is that the state did not intend to
appeal at that stage. There is nothing to suggest that
this
statement was intended to convey that the state would not appeal in
the future. At best, the statement is ambiguous. It
cannot be
said that the statement was intended to convey that the state would
not appeal at a later stage.
The respondent
argued that during the SCA hearing the state abandoned the petition
for leave to appeal. It is clear from the
judgment of the SCA that
the petition for leave to reserve further questions of law was
never abandoned. These questions were
raised as self-standing
questions of law which should be reserved. That is how the SCA
construed them. It noted that the state
did not expressly withdraw
them and proceeded to address them. In addition, the statement by
counsel for the state that their
main concern was bias could not be
construed as an indication of an abandonment of an application for
leave to appeal. Indeed
the SCA did not construe it as such. In
all the circumstances it cannot be said that the state abandoned
the petition for leave
to appeal.
The third
reason underlying the attitude of the SCA to the exercise of its
discretion related to the failure of the state to place
argument
before the SCA on the proper interpretation of section 18(2)(a) of
the Riotous Assemblies Act. This consideration seems
to us to hold
most merit in support of the SCAâs decision to refuse
condonation. However, even though the stateâs prospects
of
success on its legal argument would have been a relevant
consideration in the SCA, it should be borne in mind that the sharp
issue between the parties appears to have been whether the
questions of law sought to be reserved could be reserved in the
light of the
Adams
rule.
The last
consideration upon which the SCA based its decision not to reserve
the question of law related to the respondentâs
assertion that
although the trial court quashed counts 31, 46, 54, 55, 58 and 61
as disclosing no offence, it nonetheless heard
evidence on each of
the quashed charges, for purposes of an umbrella conspiracy charge
under count 63, dealt with them and made
findings on their merits
favourable to the accused. The argument goes that these findings
of the trial court in effect render
the quashed charges susceptible
to a plea by the respondent of res judicata
.
In our view,
as is set out more fully below,
143
the question of potential double jeopardy cannot satisfactorily be
determined in these proceedings and cannot therefore be weighed
in
the decision as to whether it is in the interests of justice to
grant the appeal. Were the accused to be re-charged, the
question
of double jeopardy would have to be determined by the trial court
at that time in the light of the new charges and the
record of the
criminal proceedings. We accordingly refrain from deciding the
merits of this argument as it is patently premature.
Similarly, it
was premature for the SCA to reach this conclusion. It did not
have the full record before it, nor did it have
any outline of the
evidence that the state would wish to lead on the quashed charges.
Accordingly, in our view it should not
have informed the SCAâs
decision on the exercise of its discretion.
(v) Nature of
the charges and South Africaâs international law obligations
The final and
crucial factor in our view which renders the decision of the SCA to
refuse condonation susceptible to being overturned
on appeal
relates to an important factor which was not considered by the SCA.
Nor was it sharply drawn to the attention of that
court. The
petition for leave to appeal raised an important question, namely,
whether an accused can be charged with conspiracy
where the offence
forming the subject matter of the conspiracy is to be committed
beyond our borders. This raised an important
question of law which
deserved the attention of the SCA. The answer to this question has
important implications for our country
as part of the community of
nations which must unite in their fight against crime. No country
ought to allow its soil to be
used as a basis for planning
cross-border criminal activities. Equally important, is the nature
of the allegations that were
made which, as we shall now indicate,
were very serious indeed.
In deciding
whether or not to grant condonation the SCA failed to put into the
scales the extreme gravity of the charges, or to
give consideration
to the need to take account of South Africaâs international
obligations in respect of upholding principles
of international
humanitarian law.
War by its
very nature is brutal. It involves the intentional and frequently
cruel killing of human beings, using all the force
that a state can
muster. Yet the law declares firmly that all is not fair in love
and war. Since ancient times throughout the
globe humanity has
imposed limits on what can be done in the course of armed conflict.
Legal constraints on the manner in which
war could be conducted
were found in a diverse range of cultural traditions from antiquity
onwards and established the basis
for the adoption of universally
accepted norms of conduct in times of war.
144
Thus, recognition of the principle of individual responsibility
for atrocities in war as violations of the law of nations occurred
during an early and relatively immature stage of the development of
international law generally.
145
Prior to the establishment of the Nuremburg and Tokyo Tribunals
after World War 2, the focus for trying such anciently condemned
atrocities lay with national courts.
146
The recent establishment of the International Criminal Court
represents the culmination of a centuries-old process of developing
international humanitarian law. It in no way deprives national
courts of responsibility for trying cases involving breaches
of
such law which are properly brought before them in terms of
national law.
147
As Cassese
points out, legal rules, however weak and defective, introduce a
modicum of humanity into utterly inhuman conduct.
148
The absence of normative standards would be especially
regrettable, leaving states free of any restraint.
â
[H]ere, more than in any
other area, legal standards possess a significant metajuridical
value: they serve as a moral and political
yardstick by which public
opinion and non-governmental groups and associations can appraise
if, and to what extent, States misbehave.â
149
In the
Legality of the Threat or Use of Nuclear Weapons
,
150
the International Court of Justice (ICJ) highlighted the
significance of humanitarian law for all countries in the world:
â
It is undoubtedly because a
great many rules of humanitarian law applicable in armed conflict
are so fundamental to the respect
of the human person and
âelementary considerations of humanityâ . . . that the Hague and
Geneva Conventions have enjoyed a
broad accession. Further these
fundamental rules are to be observed by all States whether or not
they have ratified the conventions
that contain them, because they
constitute intransgressible principles of international customary
law.â
151
The broadness
of the sweep of international humanitarian law over past decades
was further highlighted by the international criminal
tribunal that
heard the
TadiÄ
152
case. It pointed out that since the 1930s the distinction between
international and internal conflict has become more and more
blurred and international legal rules had increasingly emerged to
regulate internal armed conflict. Civil wars had become more
frequent, more cruel and protracted and âthe impetuous
development and propagation in the international community of human
rights doctrinesâ had resulted in a state-sovereignty-oriented
approach being gradually supplanted by a human-being-oriented
approach.
153
â
Principles and rules of
humanitarian law reflect âelementary considerations of humanityâ
widely recognised as the mandatory
minimum for conduct in armed
conflicts of any kind. No one can doubt the gravity of the acts at
issue, nor the interest of the
international community in their
prohibition.â
154
One of the
enduring themes of evolving international humanitarian law has been
the need to make a distinction between combatants
and persons who
do not take part (or no longer take part) in hostilities.
155
South Africa
was a party to the Geneva Conventions.
156
Yet as the ICJ pointed out in
Nicaragua v United States of
America
,
157
even if South Africa had not been a party, it would have been
obliged in the 1980s to respect the Conventions in all
circumstances
âsince such an obligation does not derive only from
the Conventions themselves, but from the general principles of
humanitarian
law to which the Conventions merely give specific
expression.â
158
The ICJ also observed that:
â
Article 3 which is common to
all four Geneva Conventions of 12 August 1949 defines certain rules
to be applied in the armed conflicts
of a non-international
character. There is no doubt that, in the event of international
armed conflicts, these rules also constitute
a minimum yardstick, in
addition to the more elaborate rules which are also to apply to
international conflicts; and they are rules
which, in the Courtâs
opinion, reflect what the Court in 1949 called âelementary
considerations of humanityâ (
Corfu Channel, Merits, ICJ Reports
1949
, p 22; paragraph 215 above)â.
159
The Court
observed further that because the minimum rules applicable to
international and to non-international conflicts are identical,
there was no need to address the question whether those actions had
to be looked at in the context of any specific rules which
might
operate in respect of the one or the other category of conflict.
The relevant principles were to be looked for in the
identical
provisions of Article 3 of each of the four Conventions of 1949,
160
the text of which will be dealt with later.
In our view
these considerations establish the setting in which the present
matter must be viewed. The growing overlap between
international
humanitarian law and international human rights law
161
makes it unnecessary for the purposes of this case to investigate
the precise characterisation of the armed conflict in Namibia
or
the legal status of the area in which the combat took place. What
matters is that regard had to be had by all those involved
in the
conflict to intransgressible principles based on elementary
considerations of humanity. There can be no doubt that the
use of
instruments of state to murder captives long after resistance had
ceased would in the 1980s, as before and after, have
grossly
transgressed even the most minimal standards of international
humanitarian law.
The same has
to be said of the use of poison to bring about the death of
opponents and the provision of cholera bacteria for placement
in
water supplies. Such means of warfare are abhorrent to humanity
and forbidden by international law. The use of poison to
eliminate
opponents in armed conflict has long been prohibited.
162
In 1925 the Geneva Protocol prohibited the use of chemical and
bacteriological weapons. In 1972 the ban on bacteriological
means
of warfare was restated and strengthened by a specific convention
designed to prohibit the manufacture and stockpiling
of these
agents of destruction.
163
As has been
pointed out above, Article 3, which is common to the four 1949
Geneva Conventions, is particularly relevant in establishing
a
basic yardstick for evaluating conduct in the course of armed
conflict. It deals expressly with the treatment of non-combatants
and indirectly with the responsibilities of medical officers. The
relevant provisions read as follows:
â
In the case of armed
conflict not of an international character occurring in the
territory of one of the High Contracting Parties,
each Party to the
conflict shall be bound to apply, as a minimum, the following
provisions:
1. Persons taking no active
part in the hostilities, including members of armed forces who have
laid down their arms and those placed
hors de combat
by
sickness, wounds, detention, or any other cause, shall in all
circumstances be treated humanely, without any adverse distinction
founded on race, colour, religion or faith, sex, birth or wealth, or
any other similar criteria.
To this end, the following acts
are and shall remain prohibited at any time and in any place
whatsoever with respect to the above-mentioned
persons:
(a) violence to life and
person, in particular murder of all kinds, mutilation, cruel
treatment and torture;
(b) taking of hostages;
(c) outrages upon personal
dignity, in particular, humiliating and degrading treatment;
. . . .
2. The wounded and sick shall
be collected and cared for.â
The quashed
charges allege that Dr Basson used his medical knowledge not to
treat the wounded and the sick, but to subject healthy
prisoners in
the hands of the SADF to asphyxiation through poison followed by
the disposal of their corpses from aircraft over
the sea.
164
Another charge alleges that Dr Basson manufactured and provided
cholera bacteria for insertion in the water supply of persons
regarded as opponents of the Pretoria government.
165
The present
case does not involve an examination of the lawfulness of the
chemical and bacteriological programme headed by Dr
Basson, and
acknowledged and explained by him at his trial on the basis that
its development was to be purely for defensive purposes.
The
quashed charges relate to the alleged use of poison and bacteria
for offensive purposes to kill persons regarded as opponents
of the
then government. Although the most dramatic of the charges, and
certainly the most heinous if true, are those that relate
to the
killing of hundreds of South-West Africa Peopleâs Organisation
(SWAPO) captives and the threat to infect the water supply
with
cholera, the four other charges are far from trivial. They allege
murder by poison and the existence of an active link
between Dr
Basson and a programme of assassination conducted by the Civil
Co-operation Bureau (CCB).
As was pointed
out at Nuremburg, crimes against international law are committed by
people, not by abstract entities, so that only
by punishing
individuals who commit such crimes can the provisions of
international law be enforced.
166
Given the nature of the charges, the SCA should have given
appropriate weight and attention to these considerations, even in
the absence of any argument on these issues by the state. Given
the extreme gravity of the charges and the powerful national
and
international need to have these issues properly adjudicated,
particularly in the light of the international consensus on
the
normative desirability of prosecuting war criminals, only the most
compelling reasons would have justified the SCA in exercising
its
discretion to refuse to rule on the charges.
(vi) Conclusion
on the condonation application
In our view,
the nature of the charges in the overall context of international
law and South Africaâs international obligations
was a
consideration that should have been taken into account by the SCA
in considering whether to exercise its discretion in
favour of
reserving a question of law on the quashing of the charges. The
failure to consider the nature of the charges was
a material factor
in the court reaching the conclusion it did. In our view, this
failure alone may have been sufficient to require
us to set aside
the decision of the SCA in relation to the reservation of the
question of law. In addition, however, to the
extent that the
courtâs view of the
Adams
rule was material to its
decision, it was mistaken on this as well, as we have outlined.
For both these reasons, therefore, it
is appropriate for this Court
to overturn the SCAâs decision to refuse the state condonation in
respect of its application
concerning the quashed charges. We
conclude that the stateâs application to reserve the question of
law in relation to the
quashed charges should have succeeded.
We turn
briefly to consider whether it is in the interests of justice to
grant leave to appeal. We are satisfied that the gravity
of the
alleged offences under consideration, construed in the light of
South Africaâs international law obligations, makes
it plain that
it is in the interests of justice that the application be granted.
In this
Courtâs judgment after the preliminary hearing,
167
the majority of the Court concluded that the proper interpretation
of section 18(2) of the Riotous Assemblies Act gave rise to
a
constitutional matter. Ordinarily it might have been appropriate
for this Court to refer this case back to the SCA for it
to
consider the interpretation of that section before this Court
considers it. However, these proceedings have already been
unusually and unfortunately prolonged. As a result, we consider
that it is in the interests of justice for this Court to consider
the question now. We therefore turn to the question whether the
trial court was correct in upholding the exception to the charges.
(b) Is the
decision of the High Court upholding the exception wrong?
(i) The charges
that were quashed
The respondent
was charged with various offences under section 18(2) of the
Riotous Assemblies Act. This section provides:
âAny person whoâ
(a) conspires with any other
person to aid or procure the commission of or to commit; or
(b) incites, instigates,
commands, or procures any other person to commit,
any offence, whether at common
law or against a statute or statutory regulation, shall be guilty of
an offence and liable on conviction
to the punishment to which a
person convicted of actually committing that offence would be
liable.â
Counts 31, 46, 54,
55, 58 and 61 are relevant to this aspect of the application for
leave to appeal. Count 31 concerns a conspiracy
to murder SWAPO
detainees in camps in Namibia. The respondent was charged with
conspiring to murder SWAPO members as well as members
of the SADF
considered security risks. Count 46 concerned a conspiracy to
murder Peter Tanyengene Kalangula in Namibia. Count
54 concerned
the conspiracy to kill Pallo Jordan and Ronnie Kasrils in London.
Count 55 concerned the conspiracy to murder Gibson
Mondlane and
others in Mozambique. Count 58 concerned a conspiracy to murder an
ANC operative, Enoch Dhlamini, in Swaziland.
Count 61 concerned the
conspiracy to murder certain SWAPO members, who were being kept in a
refugee camp in Namibia, using cholera
germs.
Before
pleading to the charges the respondent objected to the indictment
contending that murders committed beyond the borders
of South
Africa are not offences under South African law, and that the
charges accordingly did not disclose an offence. This
argument was
upheld by the High Court judge. The issue we must now consider is
whether this decision was correct.
The objection
to the indictment made in terms of section 85(1)(c)
168
of the Criminal Procedure Act, was âthat the charge does not
disclose an offenceâ. The judge correctly approached the matter
on the basis that it had to be assumed for the purposes of the
objection that the allegations in the indictment would be proved.
When we refer to the âfactsâ relevant to the decision it must
be understood, therefore, that these are alleged, and not
proven
facts.
During
argument before this Court, the state handed up a useful summary of
the facts alleged in further particulars before the
High Court.
The summary, the correctness of which was not questioned by counsel
for the respondent, provides a convenient description
of the
allegations made in support of the charges. The full particulars
did not form part of the record before us. Counsel
for the
respondent was asked and undertook to provide the Court with the
full set of further particulars which were before the
High Court,
and to highlight within them any allegations that might be relevant
to the issues before the Court, other than those
which had been
referred to in the High Court judgment or had been placed before us
during argument. Despite several reminders
this was not done,
although counsel for the respondent did send us a list of
references to relevant places in the record. We
therefore assume
that there is nothing of relevance that has not been placed before
us in argument and deal with the exception
on that basis.
The stateâs
summary of material averments made in the particulars included the
following:
â
1. During the period between
1979 and 1989 members of the SADF in Pretoria and elsewhere were
involved in planning and executing
murders on a large scale. The
units involved in the killing were Barnacle/D40 and later the CCB.
It was the aim of the CCB optimally
to disrupt âthe enemyâ, and
this included killing the enemy in a covert manner.
2. The persons who were targets
for these murders were:
2.1. SWAPO detainees and other
SWAPO members;
2.2. members of own forces who
were a âsecurity riskâ;
2.3. âenemies of the stateâ;
2.4. ANC members in Mozambique,
. . . and
2.5. specific individuals who
were targeted for elimination, including
- an unidentified person in
Ovamboland;
- Ronnie Kasrils;
- Pallo Jordan;
- Gibson Mondlane; and
- Enoch Dlamini.
The way in which Barnacle
and the CCB operated
3. The operations and functions
of Barnacle and the CCB were well-documented.
4. The CCB operated through
written proposals and authorisations for murders which it wished to
undertake.
. . . .
The position of the accused
5. The accused was a doctor in
the Special Forces (âSpes Magteâ) and was the commander of the
other doctors in the unit.
6. He was the project officer
of Project Coast and was responsible for the establishment and
development of the project. Research
results had to be delivered to
him and he could adapt, amend or bring to an end any project. The
accused was the âleading figureâ
of the project.
He
gave orders for persons to be murdered, and did so on command of
âhoër gesagâ in the defence force.
The mass murders in Namibia
7. The members of the SADF who
were in charge of the detainees in Namibia would identify those
detainees who had to be âeliminatedâ.
The commander of Barnacle
would identify the âown forcesâ who were security risks. They
would be handed over to other SADF
members who would do the killing.
Certain members would obtain toxic substances, and others would
administer the poison. Sometimes
the murders would occur by less
sophisticated means, including killing victims with a hammer and by
strangulation. Their bodies
would be disposed of over the ocean by
other members of the defence force.
8. The accused was brought in
to assist in these âeliminationsâ, as there were problems in the
early days of this operation
with the execution of targets. The
accused prepared and provided the operatives with toxic substances
which were used to poison,
incapacitate and ultimately kill through
overdose those persons who were targets of these attacks. In
certain instances he personally
administered the poison to victims.
9. One instance included the
murder of five SWAPO detainees at Fort Rev. The accused on that
occasion gave the five men poisonous
pills to drink. They refused
and hid the pills while the accused and another member of the CCB
watched through one-way glass.
The accused then went back into the
room and convinced the detainees to take the pills. The detainees
were accordingly incapacitated
and the accused injected them with
poisonous substances while they were sleeping. Their bodies were
subsequently disposed of over
the ocean.
10. The accused also
participated in poisoning beer and cold drinks that would be used in
order to incapacitate their victims.
On one occasion he
participated in disposing of bodies over the ocean. In particular,
he was instructed by the commander of Barnacle
to ensure that the
victims would not wake up in the aeroplane while the unit was
disposing of their âbodiesâ over the ocean.
11. In some instances, he also
ordered that detainees be sedated and that certain experiments be
performed upon the incapacitated
victims. Thereafter, they would be
killed by giving them toxic substances and their bodies disposed of
over the ocean.
12. Certain of the murders of
SWAPO members were planned with the specific aim of disrupting the
Namibian referendum. This included
the planned mass murder of SWAPO
members living in a refugee camp.
13. Members of the CCB planned
to poison targets by using cholera germs in order optimally to
disrupt the âenemies of the state.â
In this case, returning
SWAPO supporters residing in a refugee camp in Namibia were
identified as âenemies of the stateâ.
It was ultimately the aim
that this âdisruptionâ would influence the election in Namibia.
The CCB had approved the plan that
the water supply to the refugee
camp would be contaminated with cholera germs. These germs were
cultivated by SADF members at
the RNL and their use in Namibia
facilitated by the accused. The accused provided the infrastructure
for the manufacturing of
the germs. He identified the scientists
who would provide the cholera germs, and arranged for its delivery.
The individual
assassinations
14. The unit also targeted
individuals whom it executed, or attempted to execute, through
covert means.
14.1. Poison was applied to a
car door with the intention of killing the owner of the vehicle.
The accused participated in the
planning and execution of this
assassination by obtaining the poisonous substances and making it
available to the assassins, training
them in the use of the poisons,
and providing them with the other means to apply the substances,
including black rubber gloves,
surgical gloves and antidotes for the
poison.
14.2. Specialist weapons used
to administer poison were researched, designed and manufactured and
tested for the purpose of murdering
âenemies of the stateâ
targeted by the unit. These weapons were taken to Europe by SADF
operatives for use there. Specific
targets included Ronnie Kasrils
and Pallo Jordan, ANC members who were in London at the time of the
planned assassination.
14.3. The accused financed and
supervised the design of the weapons, provided the infrastructure
for their manufacturing and received
them once they were
manufactured. He instructed other SADF operatives to take these
weapons to Europe to be used in planned assassinations
there.
14.4. Gibson Mondlane was
identified to be killed by a major in the SADF Military Intelligence
who was working on ANC projects.
His area of responsibility was ANC
targets in Mozambique and Swaziland. . . . The poison which would be
used in his killing was
prepared and handed to the operative. . .
14.5. A transit house of the
ANC in Mozambique was identified as a target of the CCB.
. . . .
14.7. The CCB identified Enoch
Dhlamini to be killed by poison. The CCB approved the plan that the
substance would be administered
by poisoning Swazi beer to be given
to the victim. The beer was obtained and the accused was asked to
provide the poisonous substance.
He established the infrastructure
for the provision of poison, ordered the contamination of the beer
with toxic substances, received
the poisoned beer and handed it over
to âSpes Magteâ. The agent in Swaziland gave the beer to
Dhlamini. The accused asked
for a report on the effect of the
poison to be given to him. The poisoning resulted in the victimâs
death.â (footnotes omitted)
To a large
extent the conspiracies involved offences to be committed in
Namibia, then referred to by the South African authorities
and
legislation as South West Africa. In this section, save where we
quote from legislation or allegations made in the indictment,
we
have referred to the territory as Namibia as we have done
throughout the judgment.
It
is important before going further to record briefly the political
history of Namibia. From 1833-1915, it formed part of the
German
colonial empire. During the First World War, South African forces
conquered the territory and in terms of the Versailles
Peace
Conference in 1919, South Africa was granted a âClass Câ
mandate over Namibia which allowed it to administer the territory
âas an integral portion of the Unionâ with âfull power of
administration and legislationâ, under the supervision of the
League of Nations. After the Second World War the United Nations,
which had replaced the League of Nations, sought to administer
the
territory through the auspices of the newly created Trusteeship
Council. South Africa rejected the proposed arrangement,
and
administered the territory as before.
In
1950, in an advisory opinion, the International Court of Justice
ruled the mandate still to be in force and held that the UN
had
succeeded to the Leagueâs supervisory powers.
169
A subsequent challenge to the manner in which South Africa was
managing the mandate was rejected by the court on the grounds
that
the complainant states, Ethiopia and Liberia, had no standing to
pursue the challenge.
170
The mandate was however terminated by the UN General Assembly by
resolution in 1966, and confirmed by the Security Council by
resolution in 1970.
171
The International Court of Justice subsequently declared the
continued presence of South Africa in Namibia to be illegal, and
made clear South Africaâs obligation to withdraw its
administration from the territory.
172
The
South African government nevertheless maintained its presence in
the territory. It exercised political power through a number
of
mechanisms at various times, including an Administrator-General, a
National Assembly with wide legislative powers, martial
law, and
the assumption of all executive functions including functions
relating to the military. Elections for a Constituent
Assembly
were eventually held in 1989, and a Constitution committed to
individual rights adopted by the Assembly in 1990.
173
Namibia won its independence on 21 March 1990.
The alleged
conduct which forms the subject matter of several of the charges
took place in Namibia before it achieved independence
and while
still under the political control of South Africa, albeit that that
control was generally considered to be unlawfully
exercised in
terms of international law. Several of the charges relate to
alleged conduct in other countries.
Section 144(3)
of the Criminal Procedure Act provides that where an
attorney-general (now the Director of Public Prosecutions)
arraigns
an accused person in a superior court for a summary trial, as
happened in the present case,
â
the indictment shall be
accompanied by a summary of the substantial facts of the case that,
in the opinion of the attorney-general,
are necessary to inform the
accused of the allegations against himâ.
The section goes on
to provide that this provision shall not be so construed that the
state shall be bound by the contents of the
summary.
In his
judgment the trial judge referred in some detail to the summary of
facts in deciding whether or not the charges disclosed
an offence.
For instance, in dealing with charge 58 concerning a conspiracy to
murder Enoch Dhlamini, the place at which the
murder was to be
committed is not specified in the indictment. Details are,
however, given in the summary of facts. The judge
had regard to
this in holding that the charge contemplated a murder in Swaziland.
It is clear
from the summary provided above that the indictment and further
particulars provide sufficient detail of the charges
against the
accused to determine whether or not the objection to the indictment
was well founded. However, in the light of the
fact that the High
Court judge referred extensively to the summary, we point briefly
to the way in which the summary informed
the respondent of other
details of the stateâs case.
It alleges
that the CCB went to great lengths to hide its links with the state
and to ensure that its activities could not be
linked with the
state. It alleges further that CCB operatives used different names
so that their real identities could be hidden.
It also alleges
that the CCB was divided into regions which included areas within
South Africa and also beyond its borders.
According to the
summary, the CCB financed its members to set up private businesses
as a front.
The state, in
its summary of material facts, provides a description of the
operation of the CCB, as it appears from the summary
of facts:
ââ
They identified targets,
assigned a âpriority classâ to the targets, and studied the
targets.
â
The member of the CCB
assigned to the operation would make a written proposal to the
regional manager and co-ordinator in respect
of an identified
target. The written proposal contained the planned action against
the target â for example the elimination
through poison.
â
Both the planned operation
and the proposed action would have to be approved. If the project
was approved by âhoër gesagâ,
that also implied that the
finances were approved and that the operative could proceed with the
execution.â
The summary
of essential facts also provides more details on the murder of
Gibson Mondlane in Mozambique. It alleges that the
deceased was
monitored so that it could be established when he would be in
Mozambique. A written proposal about the deceased
was prepared on
the basis of which his murder was approved. It is alleged that a
particular type of poison which would allow
the operative to âget
further awayâ from the victim would be used. The indictment does
not allege that Mondlane died from
being poisoned. The further
particulars and the stateâs summary before this Court, however,
allege that he did.
Nothing in the
summary of facts contradicts the essential allegations to which we
have referred.
(ii)
The interpretation of section 18(2)
Conspiring to
commit an offence, other than treason, is not a crime under South
African common law.
174
The state, therefore, had to show that the allegations made, read
with the summary of facts, constituted offences within the
meaning
of section 18(2) of the Riotous Assemblies Act.
The judge held
that section 18(2) contemplates conspiracies to commit offences
which are justiciable in South Africa, and that
murders committed
beyond the borders are not within the jurisdiction of South African
courts. He accordingly upheld the objection
to the indictment.
(aa)
Conspiracy in South African Law
Under South
African common law, where an offence has been committed or
attempted, those who participate in the planning or otherwise
assist the perpetrator are guilty as associates or socii crimini,
and are liable to the same penalties as the principal offender.
But where an offence has not been committed, or attempted,
conspiracy to commit an offence, other than treason, is not a
crime.
175
One of the purposes of section 18(2) of the Riotous Assemblies Act
was to fill this gap in the common law and to make conspiracy
an
offence.
The judge
correctly held that the crime contemplated by section 18(2) is
committed when the criminal conspiracy is entered into
by the
conspirators. It does not depend on the commission of the
contemplated offence.
176
He held, however, that section 18(2) contemplates conspiracies to
commit offences which are justiciable in South Africa.
A criminal
conspiracy is an offence whether it is implemented or not. It
follows that the failure of a conspiracy is not relevant
to the
conspiratorsâ guilt. The judgment must therefore be understood
as meaning that section 18(2) applies to conspiracies
to commit
crimes, which if committed, would be justiciable in South Africa.
In this Court
counsel for the state, who had not appeared for the state at the
trial or in the SCA, submitted that even if this
legal conclusion
reached by the High Court was correct, it did not follow that the
charges were correctly quashed. They relied
for this submission on
various arguments which had not been raised before the High Court
or SCA. Three arguments were raised
in this Court: first, an
argument based on the Military Discipline Code (the Code) which
forms part of the Defence Act
177
and which criminalises certain conduct of Defence Force members
even when committed beyond the borders of South Africa; secondly,
the provisions of section 19A of the Riotous Assemblies Act which,
until its repeal in 1996,
178
provided that
â[t]his Act and any amendment
thereof shall apply also in the territory of South West Africa,
including the Eastern Caprivi
Zipfelâ;
and thirdly, the
proposition that where a crime is committed beyond the borders of
South Africa, South African courts would nevertheless
have
jurisdiction to try such crimes where there is a âsufficient
connectionâ between the crime and South Africa.
(bb)
The Military Code
At the time of
its enactment section 47 of the Code provided:
â
Any person who beyond the
borders of the Union commits or omits to do any act in circumstances
under which he would, if he had committed
or omitted to do that act
in the Union, have been guilty of a civil offence, shall be guilty
of an offence under this Code and
liable on conviction to such
penalty applicable in respect of that civil offence as could be
imposed under section ninety-one of
this Code.â
Section 47 of
the Code was amended in 1963 to refer to âthe Republicâ instead
of the âUnionâ,
179
and later in other respects not material to this application. For
all practical purposes, however, its provisions remained
substantially the same as they were when enacted in 1957 throughout
the period covered by the charges which were held by the judge
not
to disclose an offence. This period was from 1979 to 1989. And
this remained true at the time the accused was indicted,
when he
pleaded, and throughout his trial. The Act has since been
substantially replaced by the
Defence Act, 42 of 2002
.
180
The Code
defines a âcivil offenceâ, in contradistinction to a military
offence, as meaning âany offence in respect of which
any penalty
may be imposed by a court of law, not being an offence under
sections four to fifty, inclusive, of this Code.â
Sections 4 to
50 of the Code deal with what might best be described as âmilitary
offencesâ which are of particular relevance
in an army â eg.
endangering the safety of forces, conduct in action, military
desertion, assaulting a senior officer, etc.
The Code
distinguishes between âcivil offencesâ committed within the
Republic and âcivil offencesâ committed beyond the
borders of
the Republic. Any person subject to the Code who commits a âcivil
offenceâ beyond the borders of the Republic
commits an offence
under the Code. Military courts can try persons who are subject to
the Code for civil offences committed
in South Africa or abroad,
but murder and other serious charges committed within the
âRepublicâ are excluded from their jurisdiction.
181
To complete the picture, the 1957
Defence Act, which
was in force
at all times material to the indictment, vested jurisdiction in any
division of âthe Supreme Court of South Africaâ
to try any
offence under the Code.
182
In effect,
these provisions mean that a member of the SADF who commits murder
within âthe Republicâ commits an offence under
the âcivil
lawâ, and a member who commits murder beyond the borders of âthe
Republicâ, commits an offence under âmilitary
lawâ.
It follows
that a member of the Defence Force who commits murder in the
Republic is guilty of an offence under the common law,
and is
liable to be prosecuted for that offence in the ordinary criminal
courts. A member who commits murder beyond the borders
of the
Republic is guilty of an offence under the Military Discipline Code
and may be prosecuted in a military court subject
to certain time
stipulations, and is also liable to be prosecuted for that in an
ordinary court.
(cc)
Murder beyond the borders of South Africa
The Code is
applicable to all members of the Permanent Force of the Defence
Force.
183
The summary of material facts alleges that the conspiracies
entered into were between members of the SADF, and that they were
to be implemented beyond the borders of South Africa by members of
the SADF.
It was
contended that since the Code applies to all members of the
permanent force, members of that force who commit murder are
and
were liable to be prosecuted for that in South Africa, whether the
murder is committed beyond the borders of the country
or not.
Thus, so the submission went, even if the judge was correct in
holding that the target offence has to be one justiciable
in South
Africa, that requirement was satisfied in the present case.
This applies
to counts 55 and 58 which deal with conspiracies to commit murder
in Mozambique and Swaziland, which are alleged
to have been carried
out. It also applies to count 54 which deals with a conspiracy to
commit murder in London which failed.
In terms of the Code, and on
the basis of the allegations made in the indictment and further
particulars, the target offences
would all have been justiciable in
a South African court.
(dd)
Namibia
Different
considerations may, however, possibly apply to the conspiracies to
commit murders in Namibia. The
Defence Act defined
the Union as
including âSouth-West Africa.â
184
In 1963, the Defence Amendment Act 77 of 1963 replaced all
references within the
Defence Act and
the Code to âUnionâ with
âRepublicâ. For the purposes of the Defence Act, Namibia was
therefore deemed part of the Republic.
These definitions are
applicable to the interpretation of the
Defence Act âunless
the
context otherwise indicatesâ.
The Code is a
schedule to the
Defence Act. Section
1 of the Code provides that
âany expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the
[Defence] Act, bears the meaning so
assigned thereto, and unless
the context otherwise indicatesâ definitions in the Code itself
shall apply. It is in this section
that definitions are given of
âcivil offenceâ and âcivil courtâ. In the result, unless
the context indicates otherwise,
the word âRepublicâ in section
47 of the Code must be construed consistently with the definition
of Republic in the
Defence Act. If
the definition of Republic is
applicable to the interpretation of
section 47
of the Code, the
offences to be committed in Namibia were not target offences beyond
the borders of the âRepublicâ. For
the purposes of the Code
they were offences deemed to have been committed in the Republic.
The question
then would arise whether South African courts continued to enjoy
jurisdiction after Namibia became independent in
1990 over crimes
committed in Namibia prior to 1990. In our view, this question
need not be answered. There is another legal
basis upon which it
is clear that South African courts would enjoy jurisdiction in
respect of the crimes alleged in this indictment
even after Namibia
gained independence in 1990. We turn to consider the basis for
that jurisdiction now.
(ee) The scope
of criminal jurisdiction in South Africa
We accept that
as a general proposition our courts have declined to exercise
jurisdiction over persons who commit crimes in other
countries.
185
This, as Dugard points out,
186
is an aspect of sovereignty which has given rise to a presumption
against the extraterritorial operation of criminal law.
There are,
however, exceptions to the general rule. As Watermeyer CJ observed
in
R v Holm
;
R v Pienaar
187
the basis of this rule is international comity:
â
An independent state does
not claim a wider jurisdiction because it does not wish to encroach
upon the corresponding rights of other
independent states.â
188
Watermeyer CJ goes
on to refer to Wheaton,
International Law
, as saying that the
judicial power of the state extends:
â
(1) To the punishment of all
offences against municipal laws of the State, by whomsoever
committed, within the territory.
(2) To the punishment of all
such offences, by whomsoever committed, on board its public and
private vessels on the high seas and
on board its public vessels in
foreign ports.
(3) To the punishment of all
such offences by its subjects wheresoever committed.
(4) To the punishment of piracy
and other offences against the law of nations by whomsoever and
wheresoever committed.â
189
Watermeyer CJ
points out that this proposition is not accepted by all sovereign
states and that England makes the smallest claim
to punish its own
subjects or others for extraterritorial offences. Other countries
go so far as to exercise jurisdiction over
nationals who commit
crimes in any country.
It seems
generally to be recognised, even by those countries which limit
their jurisdiction to crimes committed within their territories,
that there are exceptions to the territorial rule. Treason is such
an exception, for it is considered that the state that is
threatened has a greater interest than any other state in punishing
the offender. Exceptions are also made in respect of transnational
crimes where more than one state may have an interest in holding
the offender liable for the crime.
190
Conspiracy
poses a particular problem because it is a distinct crime, apart
from the criminal conduct that is being planned.
The present case
concerns an ongoing conspiracy entered into in South Africa to
commit crimes in Namibia and elsewhere. In
Libman v The Queen
191
the Supreme Court of Canada gave careful consideration to the
principles applicable in the circumstances where a conspiracy
involves acts in more than one country. La Forest J, writing for
the Court, referred to the development of Canadian and English
law,
including the English decisions relied on by the judge in the
present case, and concluded as follows:
â
As I see it, all that is
necessary to make an offence subject to the jurisdiction of our
courts is that a significant portion of
the activities constituting
that offence took place in Canada. As it is put by modern
academics, it is sufficient that there be
a âreal and substantial
linkâ between an offence and this country, a test well-known in
public and private international lawâ.
192
We agree with this
approach.
In relation to
the charges concerning Namibia, the relevant facts in the present
case are as follows:
At the time
of the alleged conspiracy Namibia was being administered by the
South African government as an integral part of
South Africa.
193
The Riotous
Assemblies Act was applicable in Namibia.
The
conspiracy alleged to constitute a breach of section 18(2) of the
Riotous Assemblies Act was entered into in South Africa.
When the
conspiracy was entered into, and at all material times thereafter,
the SADF was deployed in Namibia in terms of the
Defence Act.
The
Defence
Act deems
Namibia to be part of South Africa.
The
conspiracy was to murder persons perceived to be enemies of South
Africa, including members of SWAPO being held as detainees
by the
SADF, and SWAPO refugees residing in a refugee camp.
The
conspiracy was a continuing conspiracy organised and directed by
members of the SADF from within South Africa, where plans
were
approved, poisons and other weapons prepared, and instructions
were issued to the operatives.
The
Defence
Act contemplates
that an act committed by members of the SADF in
circumstances which, if it had been committed in South Africa,
would have been
a crime, will be a crime for which they can be
prosecuted in a South African court.
Those facts
leave no doubt that there was a real and substantial link between
this country and the conspiracy to commit murders
in Namibia.
Moreover,
Namibia was not then a sovereign state. It was being administered
by South Africa and the doctrine of comity, which
is the foundation
of the presumption against extraterritorial jurisdiction, could
have had no application.
194
We agree with the comment by Lord Diplock in
Treacy v Director
of Public Prosecutions
:
195
â
[T]he rules of international
comity . . . do not call for more than that each sovereign state
should refrain from punishing persons
for their conduct within the
territory of another sovereign state where that conduct has had no
harmful consequences within the
territory of the state which imposes
the punishment.â
196
On the contrary,
comity to the international community from whom the mandate was
derived required South Africa to punish members
of its military who
committed such grave offences, contrary to the Geneva Convention
and international law. Indeed, the
Defence Act requires
this to be
done, and it could hardly be said that by deeming Namibia to be
part of South Africa, the
Defence Act put
conduct which would
otherwise be an offence within the jurisdiction of the South
African courts beyond their jurisdiction.
If the
conspiracy was a crime according to South African law when it was
entered into, it does not cease to be a crime by reason
only of the
subsequent establishment of Namibia as an independent sovereign
state in 1990.
The cases
relied upon by the judge in coming to a contrary conclusion bear
little relevance to the facts of the present case.
The decision in
Stopforth v Minister of Justice and Others; Veenendaal v
Minister of Justice and Others
197
dealt with the question whether the applicants were entitled to
claim amnesty for murders committed in Namibia under the Promotion
of National Unity and Reconciliation Act, 34 of 1995 (the TRC Act).
This Act established the Truth and Reconciliation Commission
(the
TRC). The murders had been committed by the applicants in the
course of attacks carried out by a militant organisation
based in
Namibia known as Kontra 435. That group carried out attacks on
United Nations installations in Namibia with the object
of
derailing the first Namibian elections which were being supervised
by the United Nations. Kontra 435 was based in Namibia,
and the
operations were planned and executed there. The only connection
with South Africa was that the two applicants were apparently
recruited here. The court held that the offences did not fall
within the ambit of the TRC Act.
198
They were not committed on behalf of a âpolitical organisation
or liberation movementâ or âsecurity forcesâ as defined
in
the TRC Act.
The applicants
in that case had raised the possibility of an amnesty being granted
to them by the TRC as a defence to a claim
made by Namibia for
their extradition. In the course of the judgment it was pointed
out that the offences had been committed
in Namibia, and that a
South African court would therefore not have had jurisdiction to
try the applicants for such offences.
199
It was held that it could not have been intended by Parliament to
confer on the Amnesty Committee of the TRC the power to grant
an
amnesty in respect of offences committed outside South Africa which
are not triable in this country. Olivier JA who delivered
the
judgment of the court said:
â
The power conferred on the
Committee to grant amnesty in respect of offences committed outside
South Africa can, in my view, only
be exercised in respect of
so-called extra-territorial offences triable in this country. The
crimes committed by the appellants
at Outjo do not belong to the
latter category.â
200
In relying on the
conclusion that the offences committed by the applicants in that
case were not triable in South Africa, the
judge in the trial court
in this matter overlooked the significant factual differences
between that case and this. In that case,
the applicants were not
members of the SADF, nor was the case concerned directly with
conspiracy or the interpretation of the
Riotous Assemblies Act.
That judgment could not therefore support the trial judgeâs
conclusion in this case that the offences
were not triable in South
Africa.
The trial
judge in this case also referred to the decisions of the House of
Lords in
Board of Trade v Owen and Another
201
and of the Court of Appeal in
R v Cox
.
202
Board of Trade v Owen
dealt with the common law of England
and not with the interpretation of a statute. The court accepted
that a conspiracy to commit
a crime abroad cannot be made the
subject of an indictment in England, unless the crime, if
committed, would have been one which
could have been made the
subject of a prosecution in England. The charge was of a
conspiracy to secure an export permit from
Germany by unlawful
means. It was said by Lord Tucker who delivered the principal
judgment that:
â
The comity of nations can
hardly require the acceptance of the Crownâs contentions in the
present case, having regard to the non-recognition
of conspiracy as
a crime in Germany.â
203
The nature of the
charges is again referred to in a concluding passage of the
judgment where it is said:
â
[A] conspiracy of the nature
of that charged in count 3 as proved in evidence â which, in my
view, was a conspiracy to attain
a lawful object by unlawful means,
rather than to commit a crime â is not triable in this country,
since the unlawful means and
the ultimate object were both outside
the jurisdiction. In so deciding I would, however, reserve for
future consideration the
question whether a conspiracy in this
country which is wholly to be carried out abroad may not be
indictable here on proof that
its performance would produce a public
mischief in this country or injure a person here by causing him
damage abroad.â
204
R v Cox
dealt with a conspiracy concluded in England between the appellant
and another person to use unused cheques from a bank in England
fraudulently to acquire jewellery in France. The court held that
the common law of England was such that conspiracy concluded
in
England to commit a crime abroad, other than murder, is not
indictable in England. The court suggested that the common law
of
England as it had been developed was unsatisfying and called for
attention by Parliament.
205
We consider a
conspiracy within the SADF involving high ranking officers to
murder detainees in the custody of the army and to
commit offences
such as those which form the subject matter of the charges in the
present case, in a territory being administered
by South Africa, to
have grave implications for South Africaâs international
standing. In our view, it falls within the category
of offences
contemplated in
Board of Trade v Owen
as being capable of
being made the subject of an indictment in South Africa.
We consider
that it may well be so that the conspiracy to commit crimes in
countries other than Namibia may well fall within the
category of
offences contemplated in
Board of Trade v Owen
as well.
They were all offences which involved a conspiracy to commit murder
of enemies of the South African government by members
of the SADF.
However, this is not a matter which we have to decide in this case.
We do not find
the examples referred to in the judgment, and relied on in argument
before us by counsel for the respondent, of
a conspiracy in South
Africa to smoke cannabis in the Netherlands where it is lawful to
do so, or to consume alcohol in a Muslim
country where it is an
offence to do so, to be helpful. There is insufficient connection
between the conspiracy in South Africa,
and the acts to be
committed in the foreign country, to warrant a prosecution in a
South African court. In the first example
the act to be committed
would be a crime if committed in South Africa, but is not a crime
in the country concerned, and it would
be against the comity owed
to that country for a South African court to punish a person for
acts which can lawfully be committed
there. In the second example,
the conduct does not amount to a crime in South Africa, and no one
under our constitutional order
could be convicted of conspiracy to
commit an offence in a place other than South Africa which does not
constitute a crime in
South Africa. In both cases the interests of
South Africa and its connection with the conduct referred to are
too remote to
implicate any legitimate interest South Africa may
have in such conduct. The same cannot be said of a conspiracy
within the
South African military to murder âenemiesâ of the
state in a territory administered by it and where its forces are
stationed.
We were not
referred to a decided case in South Africa which has held that
section 18(2) of the Riotous Assemblies Act requires
the crimes to
be committed in terms of the conspiracy to be justiciable in South
Africa. Nor were we referred to any South African
case dealing
with transnational crimes, other than theft, which in South Africa
is a continuing offence, that are relevant to
the issues raised in
the judgment on the exception. We can see no reason why the common
law of England, which has been found
to be unsatisfactory and to
require intervention by Parliament, should be adopted by our courts
as the basis for liability under
section 18(2). The mere fact that
it is more favourable to an accused person is in our view
insufficient to call for an interpretation
of section 18(2) which
is inconsistent with the realities of a modern state, where
international criminal conspiracies organised
and directed from one
country often involve criminal acts to be committed in other
countries, and the proceeds of the crime to
be laundered elsewhere.
(c) The
relevance of the amnesty afforded to the respondent by Namibia
The respondent
also raised as a preliminary issue before the trial court a
contention that he was entitled to the benefit of an
amnesty
granted by the Administrator-General to all members of the SADF in
respect of acts performed by them in performance of
their duties
and functions in Namibia.
206
The judge held that in respect of the charges relating to Namibia,
which in his view did not fall within the scope of section
18(2) of
the Riotous Assemblies Act, there was the additional fact that the
respondent was entitled to an amnesty in respect
of the offences
contemplated by the conspiracy.
The terms of
the amnesty relied upon by the respondent are set out in a
proclamation issued by the Administrator-General for the
territory
of South West Africa on 7 June 1989. The proclamation was headed
âGranting of Amnesty to Certain Personsâ. The
operative
provisions, set out in section 2(1) of the Proclamation, were as
follows:
â
No criminal proceedings
shall after the date of commencement of this Proclamation be
instituted or continued in any court of law
against any person
referred to in sub-section (2) or (3), in respect of any criminal
offence committed by such person in the territory
or elsewhere at
any time before the said date.â
207
The amnesty
did not apply to members of the SADF, but subsection (3) of the
Proclamation provided:
â
The Administrator-General
may in his discretion by notice in the
Official Gazette
direct that the provisions of subsection (1) shall, subject to such
conditions as he may determine, apply to any person or category
of
persons other than a person referred to in subsection (2).â
208
On 9 February
1990 the Administrator-General issued a further proclamation, which
provides:
â
Under subsection (3) of
section 2 of the Amnesty Proclamation, 1989 (Proclamation AG. 13 of
1989), I hereby direct that the provisions
of subsection (1) of that
section shall apply to the persons who, while they were members of
the South African Police, the South
West African Police, the South
African Defence Force, including the South West African Territory
Force, in the performance of their
duties and functions in the
territory have performed or failed to perform any act which amounts
to a criminal offence as contemplated
in that subsection.â
209
Namibia became
independent in the following month on 21 March 1990.
The amnesty is
limited in two respects:
It does not
extinguish the crimes. It bars prosecutions for such crimes being
instituted or continued in Namibia after the
date of the
commencement of the Proclamation.
It is limited
to prosecutions in respect of offences committed in âthe
territoryâ of Namibia.
The
Proclamation has no application to prosecutions initiated in South
Africa, for the Administrator-Generalâs lawmaking power
was
limited to the âterritoryâ. Moreover, the amnesty was directed
to future prosecutions. It did not extinguish the crimes,
and
persons convicted and serving sentences prior to the date of the
proclamation would not have benefited from it.
The conspiracy
with which the respondent was charged was entered into in South
Africa. If, as we have held, it falls within section
18(2) of the
Riotous Assemblies Act it constituted an offence whether or not the
contemplated crimes were carried out.
210
The fact that after the date of the Proclamation no prosecutions
could have been initiated in Namibia for such crimes is therefore
not relevant. The respondent is being charged in South Africa for
an offence committed in South Africa.
It is not
necessary, therefore, to consider whether the blanket amnesty
granted by the outgoing Administrator-General on the eve
of
independence is contrary to international law. It has no
application to the present case.
We conclude
therefore that the High Court erred in quashing counts 31, 46, 54,
55, 58 and 61 on the grounds that they did not
disclose an offence.
Those counts as formulated did disclose an offence within the
terms of section 18(2) of the Riotous Assemblies
Act.
(d) Double
jeopardy
The final
issue to be considered in this section of the judgment is whether
the appeal in relation to the quashed charges should
not be upheld
on the grounds that it would offend the double jeopardy protection
afforded by section 35(3)(m) of the Constitution.
It will be
helpful to remember that ahead of the preliminary hearing of the
application for leave to appeal which was held in
November 2003,
the Chief Justice gave directions on 20 August 2003 requesting
parties to lodge argument on the following preliminary
issues: Was
respondent in jeopardy of being convicted at his trial? If so, and
if the appeal were to succeed, would further
prosecution be
competent if regard was had to the provisions of section 35(3)(m)
of the Constitution? The answers to these questions
clearly
implicate whether it would be in the interest of justice to grant
leave to appeal. In its judgment this Court dealt
at some length
with the meaning and reach of double jeopardy, but took the view
that this factor, although relevant, was not,
at that stage,
sufficient on its own, for it to conclude that it was not in the
interests of justice for leave to appeal to be
granted.
211
Section
35(3)(m) provides that the right to a fair trial of every accused
person includes the right ânot to be tried for an
offence in
respect of an act or omission for which that person has previously
been either acquitted or convictedâ. The section
protects every
accused person against double jeopardy.
Sections
106(1)(c) and (d)
212
of the Criminal Procedure Act allow an accused person to plead that
she or he has already been convicted or acquitted of the
offence
with which they are charged. These provisions recognise the common
law defences of autrefois convict and autrefois acquit.
An accused
person is thus protected against the risk of double jeopardy under
both the statute and the common law.
The double
jeopardy rule prevents anyone being tried twice for the same crime.
The rule has been widely adopted in legal systems
around the
world. International law recognises the concept of double
jeopardy. The International Convention on Civil and Political
Rights (ICCPR)
213
includes a provision that protects against someone being tried or
punished again for an offence for which he has already been
finally
convicted or acquitted in accordance with the law and penal
procedure of each country. The European Convention on Human
Rights
similarly recognises this right.
214
The rules
governing double jeopardy vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction.
The protection available is dependent on the applicable
laws in
each country. In this country, the protection against double
jeopardy is one of the fundamental rights protected by
the
Constitution (section 35(3)(m)).
An accused
person is only protected against prosecution in a second
prosecution, if he or she was in jeopardy of conviction in
the
first. Stratford JA enunciated this principle in
R v
Manasewitz
215
in the following terms:
â
I accept, for the purpose of
these reasons, the following requisites to establish a plea of
autrefois acquit, namely that the accused
has been previously tried
(1) on the same charge, (2) by a Court of competent jurisdiction and
(3) acquitted on the merits. Obviously
an accused so tried must
have been in jeopardy. The proposition is sometimes stated slightly
differently thus: That the accused
has been previously indicted on
the same charge, was in jeopardy, and was acquitted on the merits.
If so stated it is necessary
to add that if the indictment was
invalid or the Court had no jurisdiction the accused was not in
jeopardy. Again, if after conviction
a superior Court quashes an
indictment as bad ab initio the accused cannot on retrial rely upon
the previous-ultimate-acquittal.
This view can be justified either
on the ground that the crime alleged in the subsequent, good,
indictment is not that alleged
on the previous, bad indictment, or
on the ground that the accused was never (legally) in jeopardy or
that the acquittal was not
on the merits.â
The
requirement that the previous acquittal must have been on the
merits, or to put it differently, that the accused must have
been
in jeopardy of conviction, means that, if the previous prosecution
was vitiated by irregularity, then it cannot found a
plea of
autrefois acquit in a subsequent prosecution. That is because the
accused was not acquitted on the merits and was never
in jeopardy
of conviction because the proceedings were vitiated by
irregularity.
216
Should this
Court uphold the appeal against the trial courtâs decision to
quash counts 31, 46, 54, 55, 58 and 61, the respondent
will not be
able to raise the plea of autrefois acquit as there was no
acquittal on the merits in respect of the quashed charges.
The
accused did not plead to these charges and was therefore never in
jeopardy of conviction upon them.
However, the
respondent raised the further argument that although the trial
court quashed counts 31, 46, 54, 55, 58 and 61 as
disclosing no
offence, it nonetheless heard evidence on each of the quashed
charges, for purposes of an umbrella conspiracy charge
under count
63,
217
dealt with the evidence and made findings in respect of it
favourable to the accused. The argument goes that these findings
of the trial court in effect render the quashed charges susceptible
to a plea by the respondent of res judicata
.
To determine
the merit of this argument one would have to canvass the mass of
evidence in order to decide whether the evidence
covers the quashed
charges. In addition, it would be necessary to consider that
evidence in the light of the particulars of
the quashed charges.
In our view, that cannot be done at this stage of the proceedings.
Were the state to proceed with the
prosecution, the question of
double jeopardy should be raised at the trial court.
Accordingly,
in our view, the question of double jeopardy cannot at this stage
be raised to prevent the court from upholding the
stateâs appeal
on the quashed charges.
(e) Conclusion:
quashing of the charges
In all the
circumstances, we conclude that the SCA should have granted the
application for condonation and the petition for leave
to appeal,
upheld the question of law in favour of the state, set aside the
order of the High Court upholding the exception and
replaced it
with an order dismissing the exception. The effect of this
conclusion is that the indictment previously quashed,
stands. It
is up to the state to decide whether to put the accused on trial on
the same indictment or on an amended indictment.
Should the state
decide to do so, the question of the right of Dr Basson to be tried
within a reasonable time and the question
of double jeopardy will
have to be determined by the trial court, in the first instance.
SUMMARY AND
ORDER
(a) Summary
As was said at
the outset, the respondent, Dr Basson, was charged in the Pretoria
High Court in 1999 on 67 counts including murder,
conspiracy, fraud
and drug offences. At the end of the trial in that court, he was
acquitted. The state approached this Court
effectively to seek
leave to appeal on three grounds in respect of the proceedings in
the High Court. In the first place, it
argued that the conduct of
the judge in the High Court had given rise to a reasonable
apprehension of bias which argument, if
upheld, would have vitiated
the proceedings before the High Court entirely. We have found that
the state has not made out a
case that the conduct of the trial
judge gave rise to a reasonable apprehension of bias and the state
fails in this respect.
Secondly, the
state sought leave to appeal the decision of the High Court to
exclude the bail record from the criminal proceedings.
The state
argued that the trial court had erred in law when it heard argument
concerning the admissibility of the bail record
before the accused
had been called upon to plead, and in respect of its ruling that
the bail record should be excluded. We dismiss
both these
challenges.
Thirdly, the
state sought to approach this Court to have the decision of the
High Court to quash six of the most serious charges
against the
respondent set aside. The High Court quashed those charges on the
ground that they concerned alleged criminal conspiracies
to commit
serious crimes beyond the borders of South Africa, which it held
did not fall within the prohibition created by section
18(2) of the
Riotous Assemblies Act which criminalises conspiracies. The
accused accordingly did not plead to those charges
and the trial
proceedings did not directly involve them. The SCA refused the
state condonation in respect of its application
to reserve a
question of law in relation to the trial courtâs upholding of the
objections in respect of these charges (counts
31, 46, 54, 55, 58
and 61 in the original indictment). This Court upholds the stateâs
appeal to this Court against the decision
of the SCA on this issue.
In respect of the reservation of that question, relating as it
does to the proper interpretation of
section 18(2) of the Riotous
Assemblies Act, the appeal is also upheld. The trial courtâs
order quashing charges 31, 46, 54,
55, 58 and 61 is accordingly set
aside and the charges are reinstated. The state must determine
what steps it wishes to take
in respect of those charges.
The question
of whether Dr Basson will be able to raise a defence of double
jeopardy is expressly not decided and will have to
be considered by
a trial court in future if the state decides to pursue the
prosecution. Similarly, any objections based on
section 35(3)(d)
of the Constitution â the right of an accused to have a trial
begin and conclude without unreasonable delay
â will have to be
determined by a future trial court if the prosecution proceeds.
(b) Order
Accordingly,
the following order is made:
1. The application
for leave to appeal is granted.
2. The appeal
succeeds to the following extent.
(a) The following
question of law is reserved in terms of
section 319
of the
Criminal
Procedure Act, 51 of 1977
for consideration: âwhether the trial
court erred in law by finding that on a proper interpretation of
section 18(2)(a) of
the Riotous Assemblies Act 17 of 1956, the
court did not have the power to adjudicate on a conspiracy within
South Africa to
commit an offence beyond its borders and
consequently quashed charges 31, 46, 54, 55, 58 and 61â.
(b) The question
reserved in paragraph 2(a) is answered in the affirmative. The
order of Hartzenberg J setting aside charges
31, 46, 54, 55, 58 and
61 is itself set aside.
3. Save to the
extent set out in paragraph 2 of this order,
(a) the appeal is
dismissed; and
(b) the order made
by the Supreme Court of Appeal stands.
Chaskalson CJ,
Langa DCJ, Madala J, Mokgoro J, Moseneke J, Ngcobo J, OâRegan J,
Sachs J, Skweyiya J, van der Westhuizen J and
Yacoob J.
For the
applicant: W Trengove SC, A Cockrell and N Fourie, instructed by
the State Attorney, Johannesburg.
For the
respondent: JG Cilliers and MMW Van Zyl, instructed by Adolf Malan
and Vermeulen Inc.
1
S v Basson
[2004] ZACC 13
;
2005 (1) SA 171
(CC);
2004 (6)
BCLR 620
(CC) (Constitutional Court judgment).
2
At this second hearing the Court was differently constituted as in
the intervening period Justice Ackermann retired from, and Justices
Skweyiya and Van der Westhuizen were appointed to the Court.
3
This judgment is reported as
S v Basson
[2000] 3 All SA 59
(T) (recusal judgment).
4
The ISEO Act was repealed by the
National Prosecuting Authority Act,
32 of 1998
with effect from 16 October 1998, but the relevant
provisions of section 5 of the ISEO Act are substantially repeated
in
section 28
of the
National Prosecuting Authority Act.
5
Section
5(8) of the ISEO Act provided as follows:
â
(8)(a) The law regarding
privilege as applicable to a witness summoned to give evidence in a
criminal case in a magistrateâs court
shall apply in relation to
the questioning of a person in terms of subsection (6): Provided
that such a person shall not be entitled
to refuse to answer any
question upon the ground that the answer would tend to expose him to
a criminal charge.
(b) No evidence regarding any
questions and answers contemplated in paragraph (a) shall be
admissible in any criminal proceedings,
except in criminal
proceedings where the person concerned stands trial on a charge
contemplated in subsection (10)(b) or (c), or
in section 319(3) of
the Criminal Procedure Act, 1955 (Act No. 56 of 1955).â
6
Section
5(6) of the ISEO Act provided as follows:
â
(6) For the purposes of an
inquiry
â
(a) the Director may summon any
person who is believed to be able to furnish any information on the
subject of the inquiry or to
have in his possession or under his
control any book, document or other object relating to that subject,
to appear before the Director
at a time and place specified in the
summons, to be questioned or to produce that book, document or other
object;
(b) the Director or a person
designated by him may question that person, under oath or
affirmation administered by the Director,
and examine or retain for
further examination or for safe custody such a book, document or
other object.â
7
Of the five drug charges, three were charges of contravening the
Medicines and Related Substances Control Act, one of contravening
the
Drugs and Drug Trafficking Act, 140 of 1992
, and one of
contravening the Abuse of Dependence-producing Substances and
Rehabilitation Centres Act, 41 of 1971.
These
charges subsequently became counts 25 to 30 in the criminal
prosecution.
8
These charges subsequently became counts 1 to 24
in the criminal prosecution.
9
S v Basson
2004 (1) SA 246
(SCA) (SCA
judgment).
10
Section
18(2) of the Riotous Assemblies Act
provides as follows:
â
(2) Any person who
â
(a) conspires with any other person
to aid or procure the commission of or to commit; or
(b) incites, instigates, commands,
or procures any other person to commit,
any offence, whether at common law
or against a statute or statutory regulation, shall be guilty of an
offence and liable on conviction
to the punishment to which a person
convicted of actually committing that offence would be liable.â
11
The seventh objection related to count 59 which related to an
attempt to intimidate which allegedly took place in Cape Town. The
judge gave permission for the state to amend its indictment on this
charge, which it accordingly did.
12
The judgment is reported as
S v Basson
[2000] 1 All SA 430
(T) (judgment on exception).
13
See the discussion at para below.
14
S
ection 319(1) provides as follows:
â
(1) If any question of law arises
on the trial in a superior court of any person for any offence, that
court may of its own motion
or at the request either of the
prosecutor or the accused reserve that question for the
consideration of the Appellate Division,
and thereupon the
first-mentioned court shall state the question reserved and shall
direct that it be specially entered in the
record and that a copy
thereof be transmitted to the registrar of the Appellate Division.â
15
Section 319(3) of the Criminal Procedure Act provides:
â
The
provisions of sections 317(2), (4) and (5) and 318(2) shall apply
mutatis mutandis with reference to all proceedings under this
section.â
Section 317(5) of the
Criminal Procedure Act provides:
â
If an application for condonation or for a special
entry is refused, the accused may, within a period of 21 days of
such refusal
or within such extended period as may on good cause
shown, be allowed, by petition addressed to the President of the
Supreme Court
of Appeal, apply to the Supreme Court of Appeal for
condonation or for a special entry to be made on the record stating
in what
respect the proceedings are alleged to be irregular or not
according to law, as the case may be, and thereupon the provisions
of
subsections (11), (12), (13), (14) and (15) of section 316 shall
mutatis mutandis apply.â
16
Above n 1 at paras 47-53.
17
Id at para 80(a).
18
Id at para 80(b).
19
Id at para 68.
20
[1999] ZACC 9
;
1999 (4) SA 147
(CC);
1999 (7) BCLR 725
(CC). Three cases are
reported in the law reports with this name. The first (
SARFU 1)
concerned the question of the proper forum on appeal and is
reported in
[1998] ZACC 21
;
1999 (2) SA 14
(CC);
1999 (2) BCLR 175
(CC). The second
is the one we refer to here (
SARFU 2)
and concerned an
application for the recusal of five judges of this Court. The third
(
SARFU 3)
concerned the appeal itself and concerned the
constitutional reviewability of the decision of the President to
appoint a commission
of inquiry. It is reported at
2000 (1) SA 1
(CC);
1999 (10) BCLR 1059
(CC).
21
Id at para 30.
22
Id at para 48.
23
See, for example,
S v Jaipal
[2005] ZACC 1
;
2005 (4) SA 581
(CC);
2005 (5)
BCLR 423
(CC);
S v Dzukuda and Others
;
S v Tshilo
2000
(4) SA 1078
(CC);
2000 (11) BCLR 1252
(CC);
Sanderson v
Attorney-General, Eastern Cape
1998 (2) SA 38
(CC);
1997 (12)
BCLR 1675
(CC);
S v Zuma and Others
[1995] ZACC 1
;
1995 (2) SA 642
(CC);
1995 (4) BCLR 401
(CC).
24
Zuma
above n 23 at para 16.
25
Dzukuda
above n 23 at para 9.
26
Jaipal
above n 23 at paras 30-31.
27
Dzukuda
above n 23 at para 11.
28
See
Jaipal
above n 23 at para 29.
29
[2002] ZACC 8
;
2002 (5) SA 246
(CC);
2002 (8) BCLR 810
(CC) at para 32.
30
[1985] 2 SCR 673.
31
Id at 689d-f.
32
Above n 23 at para 29.
33
Above n 20.
34
Id at para 36.
35
BTR Industries South Africa (Pty) Ltd and
Others v Metal and Allied Workersâ Union and Another
[1992] ZASCA 85
;
1992 (3)
SA 673
(A) at 690A-695B.
36
Above n 20 at para 36.
37
Id at para 38.
38
Id at para 41.
39
Id at para 40.
40
Id at para 45.
41
Id at paras 42-43.
42
2000 (3) SA 705 (CC); 2000 (8) BCLR 886 (CC).
43
Id at para 12.
44
Id at para 14.
45
Id at para 15.
The quote is from
R v S (RD)
[1997] 3 SCR 484
at para 113.
46
Greenfield Manufacturers (Temba) (Pty) Ltd v
Royton Electrical Engineering (Pty) Ltd
1976 (2) SA 565
(A) at
570E-F.
47
Jones v National Coal Board
[1957] EWCA Civ 3
;
[1957] 2 All
ER 155
(CA) at 159B.
48
Take and Save Trading CC and Others v Standard Bank of SA Ltd
2004 (4) SA 1
(SCA) at para 3.
49
1952 (2) SA 475
(A).
50
Id at 481C-H. See also
S v Khala
1995 (1) SACR 246
(A) at
252e-j.
51
Cited above n 20 at para 41.
52
Above n 49.
53
Above n 48
54
He stated: â. . . ek sit en verveel my dood, mnr Ackermann,
regtig
.â
55
S v Basson
(recusal judgment) above
n 3 at 72g-h.
56
He stated:
âWel,
as dit net nou is, is
ek bly.â
57
Above n 3 at 73g-h.
58
He stated: âBehalwe nou dat ek u ego aangetas het.â
59
Proceedings in chambers are generally
confidential. The question of whether they can or should be used to
support an allegation
of bias is a difficult one which we do not
attempt to consider fully here. We record the allegation and
consider it on the basis
of the ordinary rules regulating bias in
favour of the state. However, if such conduct may be relied upon,
it may well be that
the considerations that arise from conduct in
chambers require greater circumspection by a court considering
whether the conduct
gives rise to a reasonable apprehension of bias.
Given the conclusion we reach in this case, that is a question that
can be left
for further and fuller consideration in another matter.
60
He used the following words:
âonbeskof
of . . . ongevoeligâ
. Above n
3 at 71b-c.
61
Id at 70b-c. The judgment reads:
â
Wiese se getuienis toon aan dat hy deel was van die
lokval en nie goed kon hoor wat gesê is nie. Hy was een van
minstens
vyf polisiemanne wat betrokke was by die lokval. Hoe sy
gesindheid teenoor die beskuldigde van enige belang kan wees oor wat
tydens
die lokval gebeur het, gaan my verstand te bowe en hoe die
Staat kan dink dat dit ân effek kan hê, is nog minder
verstaanbaar.
Hierdie persepsie verbyster my.â
62
Above n 3 at 68e (our translation). The judgment reads: âEk het
die indruk gekry dat mnr Bruwer meen dat daar net een moontlikheid
is. Ek wil toets of wat hom aanbetref, daar nie ruimte is vir
[ander moontlikhede] nie. Toe ek dit doen het mnr Ackermann byna
ân
apopleksie gekryâ.
63
Id at 63d.
64
Id at 75b-c.
65
The comments that the state was conducting a
trial by ambush; that the judge was bored with the evidence; that
counsel for the state
was confused; that the judge had hurt
counselâs ego; and the fact that the judge laughed in chambers
concerning the failed asset
forfeiture application.
66
The judgeâs comment concerning a witnessâs
sympathy for the accused.
67
The complaint concerning the judgeâs
interjections during the cross-examination of the respondent.
68
The sixth relates to the judgeâs preliminary
assessment of General Knobelâs evidence and the eighth relates to
his remarks concerning
the relationship between Project Coast and
the WPW group of companies.
69
Above
n 49 at 481G.
70
It is clear in our law that the attorney-client privilege attaches
to the client. See
Bowes v Friedlander NO and Others
1982 (2)
SA 504
(C) at 511B-D;
S v Van Vreden
1969 (2) SA 524
(N) at
529C;
S v Moseli en ân Ander
(2)
1969 (1) SA 650
(O)
at 652Eâ653B;
S v Green
1962 (3) SA 899
(D) at 900B-901A;
Joubert (ed)
LAWSA
2 ed vol 9 (LexisNexis Butterworths,
Durban 2005) âEvidenceâ at para 754; and Zeffert et al
The
South African Law of Evidence
(LexisNexis Butterworths, Durban
2003) at 585.
71
Above n 3 at 69h.
72
For a discussion of the courtâs powers under
this provision, see
S v Gerbers
1997 (2) SACR 601
(SCA).
73
Section 35(3)(d) of the Constitution reads:
â
Every accused person has a right to a fair trial,
which includes the right to have their trial begin and conclude
without unreasonable
delayâ.
74
Section 2(1) of this Act provides:
â
If it appears to a court or to
the officer presiding at proceedings that the examination at such
proceedings of a person who is
in a foreign State, is necessary in
the interests of justice and that the attendance of such person
cannot be obtained without
undue delay, expense or inconvenience,
the court or such presiding officer may issue a letter of request in
which assistance from
that foreign State is sought to obtain such
evidence as is stated in the letter of request for use at such
proceedings.â
75
Our translation.
The judge said: â
Ja
Buffham was ân âwheeler and dealerâ as jy al ooit een in jou
lewe gesien hetâ.
76
This Courtâs preliminary judgment,
S v Basson
(Constitutional
Court judgment), cited above n 1 at para 26.
77
S v Basson
(SCA judgment) above n 9 at
para 22
.
78
S v Basson
(Constitutional Court judgment) above n 1 at para
26.
79
This provision was inserted into the Criminal
Procedure Act by the Criminal Procedure Second Amendment Act, 85 of
1997 which came
into force with effect from 1 August 1998.
80
1999 (4) SA 623 (CC); 1999 (7) BCLR 771 (CC).
81
At para 99.
82
See
S v Basson
, unreported judgment on the
admissibility of the record of the bail proceedings, CC32/99, 15
November 1999.
83
See
Key v Attorney-General, Cape Provincial
Division, and Another
[1996] ZACC 25
;
1996 (4) SA 187
(CC);
1996 (6) BCLR 788
(CC) at para 13;
Ferreira v Levin NO and Others; Vryenhoek and
Others v Powell NO and Others
1996 (1) SA 984
(CC);
1996 (1)
BCLR 1
(CC) at para 153.
84
See
Mabaso v Law Society, Northern Provinces,
and Another
[2004] ZACC 8
;
2005 (2) SA 117
(CC);
2005 (2) BCLR 129
(CC) at para
20, note 21;
Shepstone & Wylie and Others v Geyser NO
1998 (3) SA 1036
(SCA) at 1045B-D;
Knox DâArcy Ltd and Others v
Jamieson and Others
[1996] ZASCA 58
;
1996 (4) SA 348
(A) at 361H-I;
Media
Workers Association of South Africa and Others v Press Corporation
of South Africa Ltd (âPerskorâ)
[1992] ZASCA 149
;
1992 (4) SA 791
(A) at
800C-H.
85
See the reasoning in
Media Workers
Association
, above n 84 at 800D-E.
86
Ackermann J in
National Coalition for Gay and
Lesbian Equality and Others v Minister of Home Affairs and Others
[1999] ZACC 17
;
2000 (2) SA 1
(CC);
2000 (1) BCLR 39
(CC) at para 11. See also
Mabaso
, above n 84 at para 20.
87
Id.
88
Mabaso
, above n 84 at para 20.
89
On the other hand, in
Knox DâArcy Ltd and
Others v Jamieson and Others,
the SCA held that the decision to
grant an interim interdict was a decision that an appellate court
would interfere with on appeal
if it considered the lower courtâs
decision to be wrong (above n 84 at 362D). See also
Hix
Networking Technologies v System Publishers (Pty) Ltd and Another
[1996] ZASCA 107
;
1997 (1) SA 391
(A) at 401G-402C.
90
Media Workers Association
above n 84 at
800G-H.
91
See authorities cited above at n 83. See also
S
v Kidson
1999 (1) SACR 338
(W) at 349d-e.
92
S v Zuma and Others
above n 23 at para 16.
93
The court relied on this Courtâs judgment in
S
v Dlamini
above n 80 at para 98.
94
See above n 86.
95
Cited
above n 5.
96
See
S v Basson
(Constitutional Court
judgment) above n 1 at paras 23-24. See also the Canadian Supreme
Court decision
R v S (RD)
above n 45 at para 96 per Cory J.
97
1959 (3) SA 753
(A).
98
S v Basson
(SCA judgment) above n 9 at para 64. The court
relied on the dictum in
Adams
, per Steyn CJ,
at
764G-H.
99
S v Basson
(Constitutional Court judgment) above n 1 at para
34.
100
Id at para 38.
101
Above n 84.
102
Above n 84 at para 23.
103
[2003] ZACC 5
;
2003 (5) BCLR 497
(CC).
104
Id at para 4.
105
[1999] ZACC 1
;
1999 (2) SA 667
(CC);
1999 (3) BCLR 253
(CC).
106
Id at para 14.
107
Section 21(3)(d) provides:
â
The decision of the majority of the judges
considering the application, or the decision of the appellate
division, as the case may
be, to grant or refuse the application
shall be final.â
108
Above n 103 at para 4.
109
R v Adams
, above n 97.
110
Above n 97 at 764G-H.
111
S v Khoza en Andere
[1990] ZASCA 142
;
1991 (1) SA 793
(A) at 796A-D;
S v
Seekoei
1982 (3) SA 97
(A) at 101D-E; and
S v Mene
1978
(1) SA 832
(A) at 838B-C.
112
Id.
113
Id.
114
S v Basson
(SCA judgment) above n 9 at para 68.
115
Section 2 of the Constitution provides:
â
This Constitution is the supreme law of the
Republic; law or conduct inconsistent with it is invalid, and the
obligations imposed
by it must be fulfilled.â
116
Zondi v MEC for Traditional and Local Government Affairs and
Others
[2004] ZACC 19
;
2005 (3) SA 589
(CC);
2005 (4) BCLR 347
(CC) at para 102;
National Director of Public Prosecutions and Another v Mohamed NO
and Others
[2003] ZACC 4
;
2003 (4) SA 1
(CC);
2003 (5) BCLR 476
(CC) at para
35;
Investigating Directorate: Serious Economic Offences and
Others v Hyundai Motor Distributors (Pty) Ltd and Others: In re
Hyundai
Motor Distributors (Pty) Ltd and Others v Smit NO and Others
[2000] ZACC 12
;
2001 (1) SA 545
(CC);
2000 (10) BCLR 1079
(CC) at paras 21-26;
S
v Dzukuda and Others; S v Tshilo
above n 23 at para 37(a);
De
Lange v Smuts NO and Others
[1998] ZACC 6
;
1998 (3) SA 785
(CC);
1998 (7) BCLR
779
(CC) at para 85; and
Bernstein and Others v Bester and Others
NNO
[1996] ZACC 2
;
1996 (2) SA 751
(CC);
1996 (4) BCLR 449
(CC) at para 59.
See also
Olitzki Property Holdings v State Tender Board and
Another
[2001] ZASCA 51
;
2001 (3) SA 1247
(SCA);
2001 (8) BCLR 779
(SCA) at para
20.
117
Daniels v Campbell NO and Others
[2004] ZACC 14
;
2004 (5) SA 331
(CC);
2004
(7) BCLR 735
(CC) at para 43;
Hyundai
above n 116 at para 26.
118
Id at para 47.
119
See this Courtâs preliminary judgment in this matter, above n 1 at
paras 32-33.
120
1942 AD 434
at 436.
121
See also
Adams
above n 97
at 759B-C.
122
Sections 370, 371, 372 and 374 of the Criminal Procedure Amendment
Act of 1948 were retained in the Criminal Procedure Act, 56
of 1955
as sections 364, 365, 366 and 369 respectively. In the
Criminal
Procedure Act, 51 of 1977
they appear as
sections 317
,
318
,
319
and
322
respectively.
123
Above n 97 at 762H-763H.
124
See
S v Basson
(Constitutional Court
judgment) above n 1 at para 32.
125
Id.
126
See the discussion above at para 110.
127
See
Knox DâArcy Ltd and Others v Jamieson and Others
above
n 84 at 361H-I, and other cases cited in that note.
128
Above n 84.
129
Above n 84 at 1045B-D. See also
Ganes and Another v Telecom
Namibia Ltd
2004 (3) SA 615
(SCA) at para 21;
Hix Networking
Technologies v Systems Publishers
above n 89 at 401G-402C.
130
Above n 84
at para 20.
131
1969 (3) SA 360
(A).
132
Id at 362F-363A.
133
See discussion above at paras - and , and
footnotes attached.
134
Rule 6
of the SCA rules reads:
â
Application for leave to appeal
(1) In every matter where leave to appeal is by law
required of the Court, an application therefor shall be lodged in
duplicate
with the registrar within the time limits prescribed by
that law.
(2) Every such application shall be
accompanied by
â
(a) a copy of the order of the court
a quo appealed against;
(b) where leave to appeal has been
refused by that court, a copy of that order;
(c) a copy of the judgment delivered
by the court a quo; and
(d) where leave to appeal has been
refused by that court, a copy of the judgment refusing such leave:
Provided that the registrar may, on
written request, extend the period for the filing of a copy of the
judgment or judgments.
(3) Every affidavit in answer to an application for
leave to appeal shall be lodged in duplicate within one month after
service
of the application on the respondent.
(4) An applicant who applied for
leave to appeal shall, within 10 days after an affidavit referred to
in subrule (3) has been received,
be entitled to lodge an affidavit
in reply dealing strictly only with new matters raised in the
answer.
(5) Every application, answer and
reply
â
(a) shall
â
(i) be clear and succinct and to the
point;
(ii) furnish fairly all such
information as may be necessary to enable the Court to decide the
application;
(iii) deal with the merits of the
case only in so far as is necessary for the purpose of explaining
and supporting the particular
grounds upon which leave to appeal is
sought or opposed;
(iv) be properly and separately
paginated; and
(b) shall not
â
(i) be accompanied by the record, or
(ii) traverse extraneous matters.
(6) The judges considering the
application may call for
â
(a) submissions or further
affidavits;
(b) the record or portions of it;
and
(c) additional copies of the
application.
(7) The party concerned shall lodge
the required documents within the period prescribed by the
registrar.
(8) If the party concerned fails to
comply with a direction by the registrar or fails to cure the
defects in the application within
the period directed, the registrar
shall refer the matter to the judges assigned to the application who
may dispose of it in its
incomplete form.â
135
National Union of Metalworkers of South Africa v Jumbo Products
CC
[1996] ZASCA 87
;
1996 (4) SA 735
(A) at 739H.
136
Id.
137
See, for example,
Mbutuma v Xhosa Development
Corporation Ltd
1978 (1) SA 681
(A) at 687A-B;
Darries v
Sheriff, Magistrateâs Court, Wynberg, and Another
1998 (3) SA
34
(SCA) at 41C-D.
138
S v Basson
(SCA judgment) above
n 9
at paras 64-69.
139
Cited above n 15.
140
Id.
141
Section 316(11)
-(15) of the
Criminal Procedure Act provides
:
â
(11)(a) A petition referred to in subsection (8),
including an application referred to in subsection (8)(b)(ii), must
be considered
in chambers by two judges of the Supreme Court of
Appeal designated by the President of the Supreme Court of Appeal.
(b) If the judges differ in opinion, the petition shall
also be considered in chambers by the President of the Supreme Court
of
Appeal or by any other judge of the Supreme Court of Appeal to
whom it has been referred by the President.
(c) For the purposes of paragraph (b) any decision of
the majority of the judges considering the petition, shall be deemed
to be
the decision of all three judges.
(12) The judges considering a petition mayâ
(a) call for any further information, including a copy
of the record of the proceedings that was not submitted in terms of
the proviso
to subsection (10) (c), from the judge who refused the
application in question, or from the judge who presided at the trial
to
which any such application relates, as the case may be; or
(b) in exceptional circumstances, order that the
application or applications in question or any of them be argued
before them at
a time and place determined by them.
(13) The judges considering a petition may, whether
they have acted under subsection (12) (a) or (b) or notâ
(a) in the case of an application referred to in
subsection (8) (b) (ii), grant or refuse the application; and
(b) in the case of an application for condonation grant
or refuse the application, and if the application is grantedâ
(i) direct that an application for leave to appeal must
be made, within the period fixed by them, to the High Court referred
to
in subsection (8) (a); or
(ii) if they deem it expedient, direct that an
application for leave to appeal must be submitted under subsection
(8) within the
period fixed by them as if it had been refused by the
High Court referred to in subsection (8) (a); and
(c) in the case of an application for leave to appeal,
subject to paragraph (d), grant or refuse the application; and
(d) in the case of an application for further evidence,
grant or refuse the application, and, if the application is granted
the
judges may, before deciding the application for leave to appeal,
remit the matter to the High Court concerned in order that further
evidence may be received in accordance with subsection (5) (c); or
(e) in exceptional circumstances refer the petition to
the Supreme Court of Appeal for consideration, whether upon argument
or otherwise,
and the Supreme Court of Appeal may thereupon deal
with the petition in any manner referred to in this subsection.
(14) All applications contained in a petition must be
disposed ofâ
(a) as far as is possible, simultaneously; and
(b) as a matter of urgency, where the accused was
sentenced to any form of imprisonment that was not wholly suspended.
(15) Notice of the date fixed for the hearing of any
application under this section, and of any time and place determined
under
subsection (12) for any hearing, must be given to the Director
of Public Prosecutions concerned and the accused.â
142
Our translation. The original statement was that
the state â
is nie voornemens om op hierdie stadium te
appelleer teen u uitspraak nie.â
143
See paras -.
144
McCormack âFrom Sun Tzu to the Sixth Committee: The Evolution of
an International Criminal Law Regimeâ in McCormack and Simpson
(eds)
The Law of War Crimes: National and International
Approaches
(Kluwer Law International, The Hague 1997) at 62.
145
Id.
146
Id.
147
For the purposes of this case it is not necessary to enter into
controversies surrounding the existence of universal jurisdiction
for crimes against humanity and war crimes, and a concomitant duty
to prosecute. We have not found it necessary to consider whether
customary international law could be used either as the basis in
itself for a prosecution under the common law, or, alternatively,
as
an aid to the interpretation of section 18(2)(a) of the Riotous
Assemblies Act.
148
Cassese
International Law
(Oxford University Press, Oxford
2001) at 348.
149
Id.
150
1996
ICJ Reports
226.
151
Id at para 79.
152
Prosecutor v Duško
TadiÄ
Appeals Chambers,
International Criminal Tribunal for the former Yugoslavia 1995 case
no IT-94-1-AR72, 2 October 1995. Interlocutory
appeal on
jurisdiction. Reported in (1996) 35
International Legal
Materials
32.
153
Id at para 97.
154
Id at para 129.
155
Cassese, above n 148 at 330.
156
South Africa ratified the Geneva Conventions in 1952.
157
1986
ICJ Reports
14.
158
Id at para 220.
159
Id at para 218.
160
Id at para 219.
161
Cassese, above n 148 at 330.
162
Id at 333-4.
163
Id at 334. The Convention on the Prohibition of the Development,
Production and Stockpiling of Bacteriological (Biological) and
Toxin
Weapons and on Their Destruction was concluded in 1972 and entered
into force on 26 March 1975.
164
This alleged conduct formed the basis for count 31. The gravity of
the allegations is compounded by the fact that Dr Basson is
alleged
to have used deception against some of the victims, pretending that
they were receiving medical treatment.
165
This alleged conduct formed the basis for count 61.
166
Trial of the major war criminals before the International
Military Tribunal (Nuremburg)
Vol 22 (1948) (the official text
in the English language at page 465-6). Quoted with approval by La
Forest J (dissenting) in
R v Finta
[1994] 1 SCR 701
at 729.
167
Above n 1 at para 35.
168
Section 85(1)
of the
Criminal Procedure Act reads
as follows:
â
Objection to charge.â(1) An
accused may, before pleading to the charge under
section 106
, object
to the charge on the groundâ
(a) that the charge does not comply
with the provisions of this Act relating to the essentials of a
charge;
(b) that the charge does not set out
an essential element of the relevant offence;
(c) that the charge does not
disclose an offence;
(d) that the charge does not contain
sufficient particulars of any matter alleged in the charge: Provided
that such an objection
may not be raised to a charge when he is
required in terms of section 119 or 122A to plead thereto in the
magistrateâs court;
or
(e) that the accused is not
correctly named or described in the charge:
Provided that the accused shall give reasonable notice
to the prosecution of his intention to object to the charge and
shall state
the ground upon which he bases his objection: Provided
further that the requirement of such notice may be waived by the
attorney-general
or the prosecutor, as the case may be, and the
court may, on good cause shown, dispense with such notice or adjourn
the trial to
enable such notice to be given.â
169
Advisory Opinion on the
International Status
of South West Africa
,
1950
ICJ Reports
128. For a
discussion of the opinion see Kahn âThe International Courtâs
Advisory Opinion on the Status of South-West Africaâ
(1951) 4
International Law Quarterly
78.
170
South West Africa, Second Phase, Judgment,
1966
ICJ
Reports
6, at 51.
171
General Assembly Resolution
2145 (XXI) of 27
October 1966 and Security Council Resolution 276 (1970) of 30
January 1970. See also Resolutions 264 (1969) and
269 (1969).
172
Advisory Opinion on the
Legal Consequences for
States of the Continued Presence of South Africa in Namibia (South
West Africa) notwithstanding Security
Council Resolution 276 (1970),
1971
ICJ Reports
58. For a discussion of these events see
Dugard
The South West Africa/Namibia Dispute
(University of
California Press, Berkeley 1973).
173
Constitution of the Republic of Namibia, adopted
on 9 February 1990 and commencing on 12 March 1990.
174
S v Moumbaris and Others
1974 (1) SA 681
(T) at 686A-B.
175
Id.
176
S v Sibuyi
1993 (1) SACR 235
(A) at 249e.
177
Act 44 of 1957.
178
Section 19A was repealed b
y the
General Law
Amendment Act, 49 of 1996
.
179
Section 31 of the Defence Amendment Act, 77 of 1963 replaced all
references to âUnionâ in the Act with âRepublicâ. It
also
replaced all references to the âGovernor-Generalâ with âState
Presidentâ.
180
The First Schedule, which contains the Military Code, has not been
repealed and is one of the few parts of the 1957 Act which
remains
in force.
181
Section 56 of the Code.
182
Section 105(1)
of the
Defence Act.
183
See
section 104(5)
of the
Defence Act, which
reads as follows:
â
The Military Discipline Code shall to the extent and
subject to the conditions prescribed therein, applyâ
(a) to all members of the Permanent Force;
(b) to members of the Citizen Force, commandos and the
Reserve, while they are rendering any service, undergoing any
training or
doing any duty in pursuance of this Act or, when liable
or called up therefor, fail to render such service or to undergo
such training
or to do such duty;
(c) to all persons (other than members of a visiting
force) lawfully detained by virtue of or serving sentences of
detention or
imprisonment imposed under the Military Discipline
Code;
(d) to members of the auxiliary services, established
in terms of section 80, being on service as defined in the First
Schedule.â
Although this section has been amended
since the
Defence Act was
initially passed, subsection 5(a) has
remained the same since then.
184
Section 1(xxii) of the Act, as it appeared in 1957, provided that
ââUnionâ includes the territory of South-West Africaâ.
185
See, for example,
S v Kruger en Andere
1989 (1) SA 785
(A);
S
v Maseki
1981 (4) SA 374
(T);
S v Makhutla en ân Ander
1968 (2) SA 768
(O).
186
Dugard
International Law â A South African
Perspective
2 ed (Juta, Cape Town 2000) at 133.
187
1948 (1) SA 925
(A).
188
I
d at 930.
189
Id.
190
Dugard above n 186 at 136-7.
191
[1985] 2 SCR 178.
192
Id at 212-3. See also
United States of
America v
L
épine
[1994]
1 SCR 286
at 299i-300c.
193
See the South-West Africa Constitution Act, 39 of 1968, which
replaced the South-West Africa Constitution Act, 42 of 1925. See
also the South West Africa Constitution Amendment Act, 95 of 1977.
194
See also in this regard paras - above, and
Director of Public Prosecutions v Doot
and Others
[1973] AC 807
(HL) at 834-5.
195
[1971] AC 537
(HL).
196
Id at 564E.
197
2000 (1) SA 113
(SCA).
198
Id at paras 20-33.
199
Id
at para 34.
200
Id at para 35.
201
[1957] AC 602
(HL).
202
[1968] 1 All ER 410
(CA).
203
Above n 201 at 634.
204
Id.
205
Above n 202 at 413H-414B.
206
S v Basson
(judgment on exception) above n 12 at 441.
207
No AG 13, Amnesty Proclamation, 1989,
Official
Gazette Extraordinary of South West Africa,
7 June 1989.
208
Id.
209
No AG 16, Direction under the Amnesty Proclamation, 1989,
Official
Gazette Extraordinary of South West Africa,
9 February 1990.
210
Sibuyi
above n 176.
211
Above n 1 at para 69
212
Sections 106(1)(c) and (d) read as follows:
â
(1) When an accused pleads to a
charge he may plead
â
. . . .
(c) that he has already been convicted of the offence
with which he is charged; or
(d) that he has already been acquitted of the offence
with which he is chargedâ.
213
Article 14(7) of the ICCPR provides that âNo one shall be liable
to be tried or punished again for an offence for which he has
already been finally convicted or acquitted in accordance with the
law and penal procedure of each country.â
214
See Article 4(1) of Protocol 7 to the Convention for the Protection
of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms, which provides that
â
No
one shall be liable to be tried or punished again in criminal
proceedings under the jurisdiction of the same State for an offence
for which he has already been finally acquitted or convicted in
accordance with the law and penal procedure of that Stateâ.
215
1933 AD 165
at 173-4.
216
S v Moodie
1962 (1) SA 587
(A) 595F-596F.
217
Charge
63 read as follows:
â
Conspiracy to Murder
Contravention of section 18(2)(a) of
the Riotous Assemblies Act, No 17 of 1956 as amended
In that during the period 1979 to 1992 and at or in the
vicinity of Pretoria, within the jurisdiction of the Transvaal
Provincial
Division, the accused did unlawfully and intentionally,
with the specialised units and/or organisations and/or entities
referred
to in Column 1 of the attached Annexure 1, conspire to
commit and/or aid in the commission of and/or cause to be committed
the
crimes of murder and/or attempted murder, assault and
intimidation in respect of enemies of the State as referred to in
Column
2 and other persons unknown to the State.â (our
translation)