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[2003] ZACC 24
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Shaik v Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and Others (CCT34/03) [2003] ZACC 24; 2004 (3) SA 599 (CC); 2004 (4) BCLR 333 (CC); 2004 (1) SACR 105 (CC) (2 December 2003)
Links to summary
CONSTITUTIONAL
COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
Case
CCT 34/03
SCHABIR SHAIKÂ Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â
Applicant
                                                                                                                                        Â
versus
THE MINISTER OF JUSTICE AND
CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENTÂ Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â
First
Respondent
NATIONAL DIRECTOR OF PUBLIC
PROSECUTIONSÂ Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â
Second
Respondent
LEONARD McCARTHY â THE INVESTIGATING
DIRECTOR: DIRECTOR OF SPECIAL OPERATIONSÂ Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Third
Respondent
WILLIAM JOHN DOWNERÂ Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â
Fourth
Respondent
GERDA FERREIRAÂ Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â
Fifth
Respondent
Heard on        :          11 November
2003
Decided on    :          2 December 2003
JUDGMENT
ACKERMANN J:
Introduction
[1]
This is an application for leave to appeal
[1]
against the judgment and order of the High Court in Durban (the
High Court) and concerns the constitutionality of certain provisions
in section
28 of the National Prosecuting Authority Act
[2]
(the
Act) that deal with examination under oath of certain persons.
[2]
The applicant is Mr Schabir Shaik, a businessman
and director of companies. First respondent is the Minister of Justice and
Constitutional
Development (the Minister). Â Second respondent is the National
Director of Public Prosecutions (the NDPP). Â Third respondent is
the
Investigating Director: Director of Special Operations (DSO) appointed under
the Act. Â Fourth Respondent is the Deputy Director
of Public Prosecutions, Cape
of Good Hope (the DDPP). Fifth Respondent is Ms Gerda Ferreira (Ms Ferreira),
an advocate employed
by and a member of the Directorate of Special Operations.
[3]
Section 28 of the Act provides as follows:
â
Inquiries by Investigating Director
.â(1)
(a) Â If the
Investigating Director
has reason to suspect that a
specified
offence
has been or is being committed or that an attempt has been or is
being made to commit such an offence, he or she may conduct an
investigation
on the matter in question, whether or not it has been reported to him or her in
terms of section 27.
(b)Â If the
National Director
refers
a matter in relation to the alleged commission or attempted commission of a
specified
offence
to the
Investigating Director
, the
Investigating Director
shall conduct an
investigation
, or a preparatory investigation as
referred to in subsection (13), on that matter.
(c)Â If the
Investigating Director
,
at any time during the conducting of an
investigation
on a matter
referred to in paragraph (a) or (b), considers it desirable to do so in the
interest of the administration of justice
or in the public interest, he or she
may extend the
investigation
so as to include any offence, whether or
not it is a
specified offence
, which he or she suspects to be connected
with the subject of the
investigation
.
(d)Â If the
Investigating Director
,
at any time during the conducting of an
investigation
, is of the opinion
that evidence has been disclosed of the commission of an offence which is not
being investigated by the
Investigating Directorate
concerned, he or she
must without delay inform the National Commissioner of the South African Police
Service of the particulars of
such matter.
(2) (a)Â The
Investigating Director
may,
if he or she decides to conduct an
investigation
, at any time prior to
or during the conducting of the
investigation
designate any person
referred to in section 7 (4) (a) to conduct the
investigation
, or any
part thereof, on his or her behalf and to report to him or her.
(b)Â A person so designated shall for the
purpose of the
investigation
concerned have the same powers as those
which the
Investigating Director
has in terms of this section and
section 29 of
this Act
, and the instructions issued by the Treasury
under section 39 of the Exchequer Act, 1975 (Act No. 66 of 1975), in
respect of
commissions of inquiry shall apply with the necessary changes in
respect of such a person.
(3)Â All proceedings contemplated in
subsections (6), (8) and (9) shall take place
in camera
.
(4)Â The procedure to be followed in
conducting an
investigation
shall be determined by the
Investigating
Director
at his or her discretion, having regard to the circumstances of
each case.
(5)Â The proceedings contemplated in
subsections (6), (8) and (9) shall be recorded in such manner as the
Investigating
Director
may deem fit.
(6)Â For the purposes of an
investigation
â
(a)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â the
Investigating Director
may summon any person
who is believed to be able to furnish any information on the subject of the
investigation
or to have in his or her possession or under his or her control any book,
document or other object relating to that subject, to appear
before the
Investigating
Director
at a time and place specified in the summons, to be questioned or
to produce that book, document or other object;
(b)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â the
Investigating Director
or a person designated
by him or her may question that person, under oath or affirmation administered
by the
Investigating Director
, and examine or retain for further examination
or for safe custody such a book, document or other object: Provided that any
person
from whom a book or document has been taken under this section may, as
long as it is in the possession of the
Investigating Director
, at his or
her request be allowed, at his or her own expense and under the supervision of
the
Investigating Director
, to make copies thereof or to take extracts
therefrom at any reasonable time.
(7)Â A summons referred to in subsection
(6) shallâ
(a)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â be in the prescribed form;
(b)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â contain particulars of the matter in connection with
which the person concerned is required to appear before the
Investigating
Director
;
(c)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â be signed by the
Investigating Director
or a
person authorized by him or her; and
(d)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â be served in the prescribed
manner.
(8) (a)Â The law regarding privilege as
applicable to a witness summoned to give evidence in a criminal case in a
magistrateâs
court shall apply in relation to the questioning of a person in
terms of subsection (6): Provided that such a person shall not be
entitled to
refuse to answer any question upon the ground that the answer would tend to
expose him or her to a criminal charge.
(b)Â No evidence regarding any questions
and answers contemplated in paragraph (a) shall be admissible in any criminal
proceedings,
except in criminal proceedings where the person concerned stands
trial on a charge contemplated in subsection (10) (b) or (c), or
in section 319
(3) of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1955 (Act No. 56 of 1955).
(9)Â A person appearing before the
Investigating
Director
by virtue of subsection (6)â
(a)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â may be assisted at his or her
examination by an advocate or an attorney;
(b)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â shall be entitled to such witness fees as he or she would
be entitled to if he or she were a witness for the State
in criminal
proceedings in a magistrateâs court.
(10)Â Any person who has been summoned to
appear before the
Investigating Director
and whoâ
(a)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â without sufficient cause fails to appear at the time and
place specified in the summons or to remain in attendance
until he or she is
excused by the
Investigating Director
from further attendance;
(b)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â at his or her appearance before
the
Investigating Director
â
(i)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â fails to produce a book, document or other object in his
or her possession or under his or her control which he
or she has been summoned
to produce;
(ii)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â refuses to be sworn or to make an affirmation after he
or she has been asked by the
Investigating Director
to do so;
(c)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â having been sworn or having made
an affirmationâ
(i)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â fails to answer fully and to the best of his or her
ability any question lawfully put to him or her;
(ii)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â gives false evidence knowing that evidence to be false
or not knowing or not believing it to be true,
           shall be guilty of an offence.
(11) . . . . .
(12) . . . . .
(13)Â If the
Investigating Director
considers it necessary to hear evidence in order to enable him or her to
determine if there are reasonable grounds to conduct an
investigation in terms
of subsection (1) (a), the
Investigating Director
may hold a preparatory
investigation.
(14)Â The provisions of subsections (2) to
(10), inclusive, and of sections 27 and 29 shall, with the necessary changes,
apply to
a preparatory investigation referred to in subsection (13).â
Factual background
[4]
The matter came to engage the attention of the
High Court under the following circumstances: After a preparatory investigation
under
subsection 28(13) of the Act had been conducted, the Investigating
Director, on 24 August 2001, decided to institute an investigation
under
subsection 28(1) of the Act into the suspected commission of offences of fraud
and corruption in contravention of the Corruption
Act
[3]
in connection with the
acquisition of armaments by the Department of Defence. On 30 August 2001 a
search warrant was issued to
search, amongst other premises, those of the
applicant and of companies in which he had an interest. This search warrant
was executed
on 9 October 2001.
[5]
On 16 November 2001 the applicant was arrested
and charged with theft, alternatively various statutory offences. Â The trial
was set
down in the Regional Court for 27 May 2002. The DDPP had previously intimated
to the applicantâs legal representatives that further
charges might be added to
those already preferred against the applicant. Â The applicantâs lawyers in turn
advised the DDPP that
they intended challenging the abovementioned search and
seizure on constitutional grounds. Â This gave rise to doubts about the Regional
Courtâs jurisdiction to hear such a challenge. Â These matters were argued on 27
May 2002, judgment was reserved and the case adjourned
until 27 November 2002
to enable the State to add further charges. Â The applicantâs legal
representatives were advised by the
DDPP that such further charges would in
fact be the charges of fraud and corruption in connection with the acquisition
of armaments
referred to in paragraph 4 above.
[6]
On 12 July 2002 a summons (the summons) was
issued in terms of subsection 28(6) read with subsection 28(7) of the Act,
calling on
the applicant to appear at the offices of the DSO in Durban on 26
June 2002 to be questioned and to produce certain documents. Â The
applicant
duly appeared at the designated venue on the appointed day. Â Present were the
DDPP and Ms Ferreira. Â The applicant was
informed by Ms Ferreira that she was
going to act as chairperson of the enquiry and that the DDPP would conduct the
questioning.Â
On being asked by the applicantâs legal representatives, the DDPP
intimated that he was not going to question the applicant in
regard to matters
relating to the charges pending against him in the Regional Court, but that he
intended doing so in relation to
the charges of fraud and corruption in
connection with the acquisition of armaments, which the DDPP had previously indicated
might
be added to the charges pending against the applicant in the Regional
Court.
[7]
The applicantâs legal representatives objected
to the enquiry and, after some discussion, it was agreed that the questioning
would
be adjourned to 24 July 2003 on condition that the applicant brought
legal proceedings on or before 22 July 2003 to set aside the
enquiry. Â The
questioning was thereupon adjourned.
The High Court litigation
[8]
In due course, on 15 September 2003 (by
agreement with the DDPP), the applicant brought an application in the High
Court in which
he sought the following relief:
(a)
an order setting aside the summons;
(b)
â[a]lternatively in addition to [(a)]â an order declaring the
provisions of subsection 28(6) of the Act to be unconstitutional
and invalid;
(c)
alternatively, an order declaring the procedure that the DDPP and Ms
Ferreira intended adopting for the questioning of the applicant
to be invalid
and unlawful; and,
(d)
an order directing the respondents to pay the costs jointly and
severally.
[9]
In the written notice given by the applicant
pursuant to Uniform Rule 16A(1)
[4]
the constitutional issues involved in the application were stated to be:
â1.       Whether the Applicantâs right to
a fair trial is infringed by the summons served on the Applicant requiring
that
he be questioned in terms of Section 28(6) of [the Act] and to produce
documents;
2.        Whether section 28(6) of [the
Act] is unconstitutional and invalid as a result of violating the rights
entrenched
in Sections 14 [privacy], 16 [freedom of expression], 33 [just administrative
action], 34 [access to courts] and 35 [fair arrest,
detention, trial] of the
Final Constitution.â
The constitutional issues were not significantly
broadened by any factual or legal averment in the founding affidavits. Â Other
than
subsection 28(6), no other provision in the Act was attacked as being constitutionally
invalid. The chief thrust of the applicantâs
attack, based on section 35 of
the Constitution,
[5]
was that he was being compelled to assist in building a criminal case against
himself. Â Under subsection 35(1)(a) of the Constitution
an arrested person has
the right âto remain silentâ; under subsection 35(3)(h) an accused has the
right âto be presumed innocent,
to remain silent, and not to testify during the
proceedingsâ; and under section 35(3)(j) an accused has the right ânot to be
compelled to give self-incriminating evidence.â
[10]
In his founding affidavit, the applicant
complained about the fact that the questioning was to be chaired by Ms Ferreira
who, he contended,
could not â as a member of the Directorate of Special Operations
â exercise the necessary objectivity required of an independent
arbiter. This complaint
related to the administrative law attack founded on section 33(1) of the
Constitution. The attack based
on section 35 of the Constitution was limited
to the compulsion to testify brought to bear on the applicant by, (so it was
contended)
section 28 (6) of the Act. To the extent that the State might have
been obliged to justify, under subsection 36(1) of the Constitution,
any
infringement of the applicantâs section 35 rights, it was â on the case brought
by the applicant â obliged to show only
that the
compulsion to testify
was, under the circumstances, justified.
[11]
In the High Court the Minister did not oppose
the application and intimated that he abided the decision of the Court. The
High Court
dismissed both the attack against the validity of the summons and
the attack referred to in para 8(c) above, holding that â
â . . . the proceedings at the inquiry are
not of a judicial nature, nor do they constitute an administrative act. I
agree with
the submission by Mr. Moerane that the Applicantâs demand for an
independent arbiter at the inquiry is ill-founded.â
[12]
In regard to the attack against section 28(6) of
the Act, the High Court found that, on a proper construction, the words âany
personâ
as used in subsection 28(6)(a), did not include an accused person and
that accordingly this subsection did not infringe the rights
of an accused
person under subsection 35(3) of the Constitution. It did find, however, that
the subsection infringed the right
âto remain silentâ under subsection
35(1)(a), but considered such limitation to be justified under section 36(1) of
the Constitution
on the authority of this Courtâs judgment in
Ferreira v
Levin
.
[6]
Â
Costs were awarded against the applicant, including the costs of two counsel.
The application to this Court
[13]
The applicant obtained a positive certificate
from the High Court under Constitutional Court Rule 18 on virtually all the
matters
raised in his application for a certificate. Â The only findings of the
High Courtâs judgment challenged in the application are
those holding that
section 28(6) of the Act is constitutional and valid, and that the procedure
for questioning under this subsection
does not constitute administrative action
and is accordingly not subject to the requirements of section 33(1) of the Constitution.Â
During the course of argument in this Court, however, Mr Singh, who appeared
for the applicant, indicated that he would not rely
on this second ground and that
he was confining his argument to the constitutionality of section 28(6) on the
grounds of its incompatibility
with section 35(3) of the Constitution.
[14]
Events following the granting of a positive
certificate by the High Court have complicated the issues. Â The application to
this Court
was served on the State Attorney on 22 August 2003 and filed with
the Registrar on 26 August 2003. On 25 August 2003 the applicant
was formally
charged with offences of fraud and corruption under the Corruption Act, being
those very offences in respect whereof
the summons was issued against the
applicant and about which he was going to be questioned.
[15]
The second to fifth respondents, in opposing the
application in this Court, relied on these supervening events. Â In their
response
in terms of rule 18(9)(a), they stated that they were no longer entitled
to question the applicant under subsection 28(6)(a). Â This
is an implied
acceptance of, and acquiescence in, the High Courtâs finding that section 28(6)
does not apply to an accused person.Â
They moreover stated that they had no intention
of questioning the applicant under section 28(6) of the Act. They accordingly
contended,
that this issue was moot
[7]
,
in the sense that it no longer presented an
existing or live controversy between the parties, and that the Court ought not
to exercise
its residual discretion to hear the matter.
[8]
 In argument before the Court
Mr Moerane, on behalf of the second to fifth respondents, abandoned this stance
and requested the
Court to decide on the constitutional validity of subsection
28(6) of the Act.
[16]
This Court will only grant leave to appeal if it
considers it to be in the interests of justice to do so. The prospects of
success
are important in deciding whether or not to grant leave to appeal, but
they are not the only issue to be considered when the interests
of justice are
being weighed.
[9]
Â
There are a number of factors that are relevant to this enquiry. They have to
be assessed together.
[17]
One of the factors relevant to the interests of
justice is whether the dispute is a live one between the parties. In this case
the
High Court was undoubtedly correct in its conclusion that the words âany
personâ in subsection 28(6)(a) does not include an accused
person charged with
an offence that is the subject of a section 28 summons and investigation. Â Although
the word âanyâ is, on
the face of it a word of âwide and unqualified
generalityâ it âmay be restricted by the subject matter or the context.â
[10]
 Here context is
all-important.
[11]
Â
Giving an unlimited meaning to âany personâ in the subsection would mean that,
literally, any accused person could be summoned
under 28(6) to answer questions
in relation to his participation in the offences with which he has been
charged. Â It could not have
been the purpose of subsection 28(6) to cut across
the well-established rules of criminal procedure and evidence established over
centuries that have become part of our law.
[18]
One need go no further than section 196(1)(a) of
the Criminal Procedure Act
[12]
(the CPA) which establishes that an accused is a competent witness,
but stipulates that âan accused shall not be called as a witness
except on his
own application.â Â It is true that this limitation, if applied literally, would
apply only to the actual trial of
the offence with which the accused is
charged, but to construe âany personâ in section 28(6)(a) as including such an
accused,
would constitute a flagrant circumvention of section 196(1)(a). Such
a clash should be avoided by construing âany personâ in
section 28(6)(a) in a
way most favourable to the accused,
[13]
and in a way that does not defeat the clear purpose of subsection 196(1)(a) of
the CPA.
[14]
 This is what the High Court did.
[19]
The applicant can accordingly not be questioned
under section 28 as long as he is being tried on charges covered by the section
28
summons. This summons has not, however, been withdrawn and if the criminal
charges against the applicant were to be withdrawn,
the applicant could still
be questioned under the provisions of section 28. The expression of an
intention on behalf of the second
to fifth respondents not to do so, referred
to above, does not amount to a formal undertaking to the Court that this will
not occur.Â
The possibility accordingly exists that the applicant could be
examined. The issue between the parties which is not currently live,
is not
necessarily completely extinguished.
[20]
It is not necessary, however, to reach a firm
conclusion in this regard, because even if the issues were moot, this Court
would still
have to consider whether it ought to exercise its residual
discretion to hear the matter. This would itself involve an enquiry
as to
whether it would be in the interests of justice to do so, a prerequisite for
which being that âany order which this Court
may make will have some practical
effect either on the parties or on others.â
[15]
Â
There could well be, indeed there are likely to be, other parties who find
themselves in the same position as the applicant before
being charged with the
very offences forming the subject of the summons issued against him. This
would therefore be a consideration
in favour of granting leave.
[21]
There are, however, considerations going the
other way. Â The kernel of the applicantâs attack throughout has been that the
section
28 procedure empowers the prosecuting authority to require a suspect to
answer questions without giving the suspect full immunity
from the consequences
of such answers. Â This attack has been based on section 35 of the Constitution
and has been focussed exclusively
on subsection 28(6)
[16]
of the Act. Subsection 28(6)
is, however, the wrong provision to target. It does no more than describe the
Investigating Directorâs
powers and says nothing about the obligations of the
examinee. It neither compels the examinee to heed the summons nor to answer
any questions, nor does it stipulate what questions the examinee is obliged to
answer, nor what use may be made of any answer, nor
what the consequences might
be if the examinee should fail or refuse to answer any question. Â The sting of
the section â for purposes
of the section 35 attack â is found in subsections 28(8)
and (10).
[17]
 The punishment for the offence created by subsection 28(10) is not prescribed
in the Act and, accordingly, the general enabling
provisions of section 276 of
the CPA â that empowers, amongst other things, the imposition of imprisonment â
apply.
[22]
The compulsion to attend, to be sworn in or to
make an affirmation, and to answer questions fully, are all stipulated in
subsection
(10). Â The extent of examineesâ privilege to refuse to answer
questions, and the manner and extent to which answers â that examinees
are
obliged to give â may subsequently be used against them, are detailed in
subsection (8). Â Indeed, the constitutional attack
in the High Court and this
Court focussed on the alleged constitutional inadequacy of the direct use
immunity
[18]
provided for in subsection (8)(b).
[23]
Highlighting the fact that the wrong statutory
provision has been attacked is not mere pedantry. It should not be thought
that such
an omission can always be cured, as between litigating parties, merely
because the arguments addressed by them covered, albeit by
implication,
subsections 28(8) and (10). It is constitutionally a serious matter for any
court to declare a statutory enactment
of Parliament â or for that matter of
any legislature â invalid, because it constitutes a serious invasion, albeit a
constitutionally
sanctioned one, by one arm of the state into the sphere of
another. Moreover, an order by this Court that a statutory provision
is
constitutionally invalid, does not operate between the litigating parties only,
but is generally binding on all persons and organs
of state.
[24]
The minds of litigants (and in particular
practitioners) in the High Courts are focussed on the need for specificity by
the provisions
of Uniform Rule 16A(1).
[19]
Â
The purpose of the rule is to bring the case to the attention of persons (who
may be affected by or have a legitimate interest
in the case) the particularity
of the constitutional challenge, in order that they may take steps to protect
their interests. This
is especially important in those cases where a party may
wish to justify a limitation of a Chapter 2 right and adduce evidence in
support thereof.
[25]
It constitutes sound discipline in
constitutional litigation to require accuracy in the identification of
statutory provisions that
are attacked on the ground of their constitutional
invalidity. This is not an inflexible approach. The circumstances of a
particular
case might dictate otherwise. It is, however, an important
consideration in deciding where the interests of justice lie.
[26]
Another consideration, adverse to the granting
of leave, is the fact that the High Court in its judgment, and the parties in
their
arguments here and in the High Court, approached the issue of the
constitutional invalidity of subsection 28(6) on the restricted
basis that the
summons in this case related to the suspected commission of offences of fraud
and corruption in contravention of the
Corruption Act. Â It was common cause
that such offences are extremely serious. Â The justification enquiry under section
36(1) of
the Constitution, focussed exclusively on the state interest in
prosecuting such serious crimes.
[27]
This approach is incorrect. It is inconsistent
with the principle of objective constitutional invalidity enunciated by this
Court.Â
Under the interim Constitution, the relevant part of this principle was
formulated as follows in
Ferreira v Levin
:
â[T]he enquiry is an objective one. Â A
statute is either valid or âof no force and effect to the extent of its
inconsistencyâ.
 The subjective positions in which parties to a dispute may
find themselves cannot have a bearing on the status of the provisions
of a
statute under attack. The Constitutional Court, or any other competent Court
for that matter, ought not to restrict its enquiry
to the position of one of
the parties to a dispute in order to determine the validity of a law. Â The
consequence of such a (subjective)
approach would be to recognise the validity
of a statute in respect of one litigant, only to deny it to another. Â Besides
resulting
in a denial of equal protection of the law, considerations of legal
certainty, being a central consideration in a constitutional
state, militate
against the adoption of the subjective approach.â
[20]
This principle is equally applicable
under the 1996 Constitution.
[28]
Accordingly, when the state interest in
conferring no more than a use immunity in subsection 28(8) is evaluated, regard
must be had
â not to the offences referred to in the summons â but to the whole
range of offences in respect of which a summons could be
issued under
subsection 28(6). The âspecified offenceâ, referred to in subsection 28(1), in
respect whereof an investigation
may be conducted and a person summoned under
subsection 28(6), is defined in section 1 of the Act as meaning â
âany matter which in the opinion of the
head
of an Investigating Directorate
falls within the range of matters as
contemplated in section 7(1)(a)
(aa)
or any proclamation issued in terms
of section 7(1)
(a)(bb)
or (1A), and any reference to the commission of a
specified offence has a corresponding meaningâ.
The matters
contemplated in section 7(1)(a)(aa) are:
âoffences or any criminal or unlawful
activities
committed
in an organised fashion
â.Â
(Emphasis supplied)
.
The matters
contemplated in section 7(1)(a)(bb) are:
âsuch other offences or categories of offences as
determined by the President by proclamation in the
Gazette
.â
[29]
Every possible offence is captured by the sweep
of subparagraph (aa) of section 7(1)(a), provided only that it is committed âin
an organised fashionâ. Â The ambit of subparagraph (bb) of section 7(1)(a)
cannot be construed restrictively, so as to limit the
offences or categories of
offences that may be determined by the President, to offences committed âin an
organised fashionâ.
 To do so would be to render subparagraph (bb)
tautologous. It is clear that subparagraph (bb) enables the President to
proclaim
any offence as a âspecified offenceâ for purposes of section 28,
whether or not it is committed in an âorganised fashionâ.
[30]
By Proclamation No. R. 102, 1998 of 16 October
1998 offences were proclaimed which included âtheft and any offence involving
dishonestyâ
and any offence in contravention of âthe Income Tax Act . . .â; âthe
Customs and Excise Act . . .â; âthe Sea Fishery Act
. . .â; and âthe Drugs and
Drug Trafficking Act . . .â; committed âin an organized fashion or which may
endanger the safety
or security of the public,
or
any conspiracy,
incitement or attempt to commit any of the above-mentioned offencesâ (Emphasis
supplied). The offences covered
by section 7(1)(a)(aa) include the most
trivial offence, provided it is committed in an organised fashion. Â This Proclamation
includes
an attempt to commit theft and any offence involving dishonesty, and
it does so without expressly limiting it to attempts made in
an organised
fashion.
[31]
By Proclamation No. R. 123, 1998 of 4 December
1998 (which did not purport to repeal the previous proclamation) the following
further
offences were added:
â(a) . . .
(i) . . .
. . .
(iv)Â Â Â Â Â Â corruption
in terms of the Corruption Act . . .; or
(b) any other â
(i)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â economic
common law offence; or
(ii)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â economic offence in contravention of any statutory
provision, which involves patrimonial prejudice or potential
patrimonial
prejudice to the State, any body corporate, trust, institution or person,
 which is of a serious or complicated nature.â
The common law or statutory
âeconomicâ offences referred to need not be committed in an organised fashion,
the only qualification
is that such offence must be of a serious or complicated
nature. No indication is given as to what is meant by âseriousâ or
âcomplicatedâ or what criteria the Investigating Director is to use when, under
subsection 28(1), such Director is to form a
view that there is reason to
suspect that a âspecified offenceâ has been or is being committed.
[32]
It is inadvisable to attempt any precise
circumscription of the offences that may form the subject matter of a
subsection 28(6) investigation.Â
Suffice it to say that the offences could be
far less serious or damaging to the state than offences referred to in the
applicantâs
summons. Yet, it was on the basis of all such offences â that
could be the subject of a section 28(6) summons â that the justification
enquiry should have been done. The wide ambit of section 28(6) was not brought
to the attention of the High Court nor appreciated
by the litigants in this
Court.
[33]
The wrong provision in the Act has been targeted
for constitutional attack. Â The potential ambit of section 28 has been misunderstood,
with the attendant consequences referred to above. Â The dispute is not
currently a live one between the parties. Â Under all these
circumstances, it is
not in the interests of justice to grant leave to appeal in which the thrust of
the constitutional attack is
not in substance against subsection 28(6) but
against subsections 28(8) and (10).
[34]
It is necessary, in the public interest, to
comment on the way the attack was conducted in this Court. Â Both in the written
and oral
argument on the applicantâs behalf, it was strenuously contended that
the direct use immunity provided by section 28,
[21]
was constitutionally insufficient
and therefore the compulsion to furnish incriminating answers invalid. In
support of these contentions,
heavy reliance was placed on dicta in a number of
judgments of the Canadian Supreme Court.
[35]
In
Ferreira v Levin
 this Court
considered, in the context of enquiries and the examination of persons under
section 417 of the Companies Act 61 of 1973,
the constitutional validity of
subsection 417(2)(b) that provided the following:
âAny such person may be required to answer
any question put to him at the examination, notwithstanding that the answer
might tend
to incriminate him, and any answer given to any such question may
thereafter be used in evidence against him.â
[22]
The Court held the provision to be
constitutionally invalid and one of the issues was the extent of its
invalidity. Â This in turn
revolved around the question as to what form of
protection, against the use of such examineesâ answers against themselves in a
subsequent criminal trial, would be valid.
[36]
There were three choices:
(a)
Transactional immunity, that protected examinees from prosecution in
respect of any offence disclosed in their answers;
(b)
direct and derivative use immunity, that protected the examinees
from their answers being used against them and also the exclusion
from any
subsequent prosecution of evidence derived by the prosecuting authorities from
such answers; and,
(c)
direct use immunity, that protected the examinees from their answers
being used against them, and no more.
The Court
opted for the last-mentioned. Â It came to the conclusion that, in the South
African context, mere direct use immunity was
sufficient, bearing in mind that the
trial judge had a discretion â in appropriate cases â to exclude derivative
evidence if
that were necessary to ensure a fair trial.
[23]
[37]
In coming to this conclusion, the Court paid
close attention to comparable decisions in other jurisdictions, and in
particular to
the very Canadian authorities relied upon in this Court on the
applicantâs behalf. Â The conclusion reached in
Ferreira v Levin
on the
use of derivative evidence, summarised above, was a broad and general one, and
not confined to the statutory provision in
question. Although attempts were
made by the applicant in this Court to distinguish
Ferreira v Levin
,
these were not convincing. Â If the applicantâs contention was that the case had
been wrongly decided, argument should have been
addressed to convince this
Court that it has the power to overrule itself and that it ought to do so. Â This
was not done.
A concern relating to section 28
of the Act
[38]
There is a concern about the constitutional
validity of subsections 28(6), (8) and (10) of the Act. Â It was not formally
raised or
dealt with in argument as a ground for attack under section 35 of the
Constitution. While refraining from pronouncing on it, the
Court cannot allow the
concern to pass unmentioned. Â It relates to the fact that, under subsection 28(6)(b),
the âInvestigating
Director or a person designated by himâ questions the person
summoned under oath or affirmation, without the necessity of any other
person
being present, let alone a person who is independent of the Directorate of
Special Operations.
[39]
This concern is not dispelled by an argument
that the Investigating Director could, under the discretion conferred by
subsection 28(4),
make provision for the questioning to be presided over by an
independent person. Â The point is that the Investigating Director is
not
obliged by any of the subsections to do so. This concern must moreover be
viewed in the context of subsection (3), that makes
it obligatory for all
proceedings contemplated in subsections (6), (8) and (9) to take place in
camera, and that, under subsection
(5), these proceedings are to be recorded
âin such mannerâ as the Investigating Director may deem fit. Â An Investigating
Director
could decide to keep a long-hand minute herself, or by the person
designated to conduct the examination. Although the person summoned
is, under
subsection 28(9)(a), permitted to have legal representation, it cannot be
assumed that a lawyer will be appointed. Â The
section 28 procedure raises the
spectre of the interrogator and interrogatee alone in one room for days, the
former asking the questions
and making the record, the latter simply answering
questions.
[40]
The Act raises relatively novel problems about
how to reconcile the need for effective control of organised crime with respect
for
the constitutional protection of a fair trial. Â More particularly it
introduces elements of inquisitorial investigation into what
has traditionally
been an accusatorial system. Â The potential tensions involved need to be
confronted with properly prepared papers
and appropriately focused argument. Â It
would not be in the interests of justice to touch on these matters in a
tangential manner
on the basis of the application as mounted in the present
case.
The costs in the High Court and
this Court
[41]
The only remaining issue concerns the costs in
the High Court that the applicant was ordered to pay. Even assuming, without
deciding,
that there may be circumstances when it is necessary for this Court
to adjudicate on the merits of an appeal for the sole reason
of considering an
appeal against a costs order,
[24]
this is not such a case. The merits of the true issues cannot be considered
because of the way the attack was launched by the applicant
and it is not in
the interest of justice, in the circumstances of this case, to grant leave to
appeal solely against the costs order
in the High Court. In dismissing the
application for leave to appeal it is equitable to require all the parties to
pay their own
costs in this Court.
The order
[42]
The following order is made:
1.        The application for leave to appeal is dismissed;
2.        All
the parties are to pay their own costs in this application.
Chaskalson CJ, Langa DCJ, Madala J, Mokgoro J, Moseneke J, OâRegan J,
Sachs J, and Yacoob J concur in the judgment of Ackermann
J.
F
or the applicant:Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â N
Singh SC and AA Gabriel instructed
by
Reeves Parsee Attorneys, Durban
For the second to fifth respondent:Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â MTK
Moerane SC and RJ Salmon instructed
by the State Attorney, KwaZulu - Natal
[1]
In terms of Constitutional Court Rule 18 read with section 167(6)
of the Constitution.
[2]
No 32 of 1998.
[3]
No 94 of 1992.
[4]
Uniform Rule 16A(1) reads as follows:
â(1) (a) Any person raising a constitutional issue in an application
or action shall give notice thereof to the registrar at the
time of filing the
relevant affidavit or pleading.
(b) Such notice shall contain a clear and succinct description of
the constitutional issue concerned.
(c) The registrar shall, upon receipt of such notice, forthwith
place it on a notice board designated for that purpose.
(d) The notice shall be stamped by the registrar to indicate the
date upon which it was placed on the notice board and shall remain
on the
notice board for a period of 20 days.â
[5]
Subsection 35(1) entrenches rights in respect of everyone who is
arrested, subsection 35(2) in respect of everyone who is detained,
and
subsection 35(3) in respect of every accused person.
[6]
Ferreira v
Levin NO and Others; Vryenhoek and Others v Powell NO
and Others
1996 (1) BCLR 1
(CC);
1996 (1) SA 984
(CC).
[7]
Relying on
National Coalition for Gay and Lesbian Equality and
Others v Min of Home Affairs and Others
[1999] ZACC 17
;
2000 (1) BCLR 39
(CC);
2000 (2) SA
1
(CC) fn 18. Â See also
JT Publishing (Pty) Ltd v Min of Safety &
Security
[1996] ZACC 23
;
1996 (12) BCLR 1599
(CC);
1997 (3) SA 514
(CC).
[8]
Independent Electoral Commission v
Langeberg Municipality
[2001] ZACC 23
;
2001 (9) BCLR 883
(CC);
2001
(3) SA 925
(CC) paras 9-11.
[9]
Fraser v Naude and Others
1998 (11) BCLR 1357
(CC);
1999 (1)
SA 1
(CC) para 7.
[10]
R v Hugo
1926 AD 268
at 271, per Innes CJ.
[11]
First National Bank of SA Limited t/a Wesbank v Commissioner for
the South African Revenue Services and Another; First National Bank
of SA
Limited t/a Wesbank v Minister of Finance
[2002] ZACC 5
;
2002 (7) BCLR 702
(CC);
2002 (4)
SA 768
(CC) para 63.
[12]
Act 51 of 1977.
[13]
See
R v Sachs
1953 (1) SA 392
(A) 399-400 and
S v Baleka
and Others
1986 (1) SA 361
(T) at 392J-393F.
[14]
A well-recognised rule of statutory construction was formulated as
follows in
Chotabhai v Union Government (Minister of Justice) and Registrar
of Asiatics
1911 AD 13
at 24:
â[E]very part of a Statute should be
so construed as to be consistent, so far as possible, with every part of that
Statute, and
with every other unrepealed Statute enacted by the same
Legislature.â
[15]
The
Langeberg
case above n 8 para 11.
[16]
Quoted in para 3 above.
[17]
Quoted in para 3 above.
[18]
As to which see
Ferriera v Levin
above n 6 paras 134, 152
and 153.
[19]
Above n 4.
[20]
Above n 6 para 26.
[21]
As already pointed out the compulsion to answer and the direct use
immunity are features of subsection 28(8) and not subsection 28(6)
of the Act.
[22]
Above n 6 para 1.
[23]
Id. See, for example, paras 150-3.
[24]
See, for example,
Pretoria Garrison Institutes v Danish Variety
Products (Pty) Ltd
1948 (1) SA 839
(A) at 863 and
De Vos v Cooper &
Ferreira
1999 (4) SA 1290
(SCA) para 18.