L v MEC for Health of the Free State Provincial Government (4016/2014) [2017] ZAFSHC 213; [2018] 1 All SA 522 (FB) (19 October 2017)

80 Reportability
Administrative Law

Brief Summary

Condonation — Late filing of notice — Application for condonation for late serving of notice of intention to institute legal proceedings against an organ of state — Applicant sought condonation more than two years after the Respondent denied compliance with the Act — Respondent's legal team initially indicated no opposition but later withdrew this position — Court must determine whether an agreement not to oppose existed and whether the Respondent was entitled to resile from it — Held: No binding agreement was formed as the Respondent validly withdrew its indication of non-opposition prior to acceptance by the Applicant; condonation application not granted.

Comprehensive Summary

Summary of Judgment


Introduction


The proceedings were an application for condonation brought in terms of section 3(4) of the Institution of Legal Proceedings Against Certain Organs of State Act 40 of 2002. The applicant sought condonation for the late service of a section 3(2) notice of intention to institute legal proceedings against the respondent, an organ of state.


The applicant, L H A, acted in her representative capacity as the mother and natural guardian of a minor child, M M L. The respondent was the MEC for Health of the Free State Provincial Government, cited as defendant in the main action.


Procedurally, the applicant had already instituted delictual action for damages, and the matter had been set down for a trial on the merits only for ten consecutive court days in October 2017. The condonation application was launched only shortly before the trial date, despite the respondent having raised non-compliance with the Act in its plea years earlier. The late launching of the application caused disruption to the trial allocation and required the condonation issue to be determined before the merits could proceed.


The dispute concerned compliance with the statutory pre-litigation notice regime applicable to organs of state, and in particular whether the applicant could obtain condonation for non-compliance with the notice time limits, as well as whether the respondent was procedurally barred from opposing the application due to an alleged agreement or concession by the State Attorney.


Material Facts


The material background to the intended delictual claim was that the minor child was born at Thebe District Hospital, Harrismith, in 2005, and suffers from cerebral palsy. The applicant alleged that the child sustained a hypoxic-ischaemic insult during birth resulting in severe and permanent brain damage, allegedly linked to prolonged labour and negligence by the respondent’s employees. Damages of R21 million were claimed in the main action.


It was common cause that the applicant’s attorneys posted a purported section 3(2) notice by registered mail on 30 June 2014, and summons was issued on 2 September 2014. The respondent placed compliance in issue in its plea dated 9 March 2015.


The condonation application itself was served on the State Attorney on 7 September 2017, shortly before the trial, notwithstanding that the plea years earlier had already contested compliance. The court treated the absence of an explanation for this delay in bringing the condonation application as a material feature of the case.


A further set of facts arose in a preliminary dispute about whether the respondent was entitled to oppose the condonation application. The State Attorney sent a letter dated 21 September 2017 stating, in effect, that the respondent would not oppose the application. It was undisputed that the respondent’s legal administration officer later instructed the State Attorney to withdraw that stance, and that a further letter dated 26 September 2017 communicated the withdrawal and a notice of intention to oppose was filed on the same day. The applicant nevertheless set the matter down as “unopposed”, and the respondent ultimately filed opposing papers on the first day of allocated trial time.


On the “good cause” enquiry, the applicant relied on her socio-economic circumstances and on the asserted lack of earlier knowledge that negligence might have caused the child’s condition. The applicant alleged she was told at around the child’s age of two years (circa 2007) that the child was brain-damaged due to lack of oxygen at birth, but contended she was not informed that this was potentially attributable to negligence. She asserted that she only suspected a legal claim in 2014 after meeting another woman at the hospital who had pursued a similar claim and referred her to attorneys.


The record also reflected that medical records were largely unavailable, a feature which affected both parties. The respondent relied on missing documentation and unavailable witnesses (including the death of a nurse and the disappearance of a doctor) to support an allegation of prejudice. The court accepted that the absence of records created difficulty for both prosecution and defence, but considered the cause and timing of the loss of records to be unclear on the papers.


Legal Issues


Two central legal questions required determination.


The first, treated as a point in limine, was whether the State Attorney’s letter of 21 September 2017 created a binding agreement, admission, or waiver/abandonment of rights such that the respondent could not oppose the condonation application; and, if not, whether the respondent was entitled to withdraw its stated non-opposition and proceed to oppose.


The second was whether the applicant satisfied the statutory requirements for condonation under section 3(4)(b) of the Act. This required determination of issues involving the application of legal standards to the facts: whether the debt had prescribed (not in dispute), whether good cause existed for the failure to serve the notice timeously, and whether the respondent was not unreasonably prejudiced by the failure.


The dispute therefore involved mixed questions of law and fact, and the court’s assessment required evaluative judgments about the adequacy of the explanation for delay, the fairness of permitting the claim to proceed, and the nature and reasonableness of any alleged prejudice to the organ of state.


Court’s Reasoning


Point in limine: alleged agreement / waiver / admission


The court rejected the applicant’s contention that the 21 September 2017 letter constituted a binding agreement that the condonation application would be unopposed. The reasoning proceeded from basic contract and mandate principles.


On the “agreement” argument, the court noted the absence of evidence that the applicant had requested an undertaking not to oppose, or that there had been an offer-and-acceptance exchange sufficient to establish consensus. In the court’s analysis, the letter could at most be viewed as an open offer capable of withdrawal prior to acceptance. The court relied on authority confirming that an offer may be withdrawn at any time before acceptance, and concluded that by the time the applicant asserted an agreement (27 September 2017), the respondent had already withdrawn the earlier stance and had communicated the withdrawal and filed opposition on 26 September 2017. On that basis the court treated the respondent as having acted within its rights to revoke the non-opposition stance before any acceptance.


On the “waiver” and “abandonment of rights” contentions, the court applied the principle that waiver must be clearly proved, including proof of full knowledge of the relevant facts and legal consequences and an intention to surrender the right. The court accepted the respondent’s version that neither the State Attorney nor counsel had full knowledge of material developments identified later in the respondent’s investigation (including difficulties relating to witnesses and records), and therefore could not be taken to have intentionally waived rights in the required sense.


The court further addressed the question of mandate. It accepted the respondent’s evidence that the legal administration officer was the only person authorised to instruct the State Attorney on settlement or agreements, and that no such instruction had been given. The court emphasised the principle that a legal representative with only a general authority may not compromise a client’s rights to the client’s detriment without a specific mandate, particularly in matters involving state departments and public funds. On this basis, the court held that the State Attorney and counsel lacked authority to bind the respondent to a decision not to oppose in the absence of a specific mandate, and that a client is not bound where an attorney exceeds mandate.


The court therefore concluded that the respondent was entitled to oppose the condonation application, and that the opposition was not unreasonable.


Condonation under section 3(4): statutory framework and application


The court set out the statutory scheme. Section 3(2)(a) of the Act requires notice to be served within six months from the date the debt became due. Section 3(3)(a) qualifies this by providing that a debt is not regarded as due until the creditor has knowledge of the identity of the organ of state and the facts giving rise to the debt, and further deems such knowledge to exist when it could have been acquired by reasonable care, absent wilful prevention by the organ of state.


The court rejected the applicant’s pleaded reliance on minority as excusing compliance, holding (with reference to authority) that the Act’s definition of “creditor” includes a person acting on behalf of a minor, so that the applicant was required to comply with the Act’s notice regime rather than rely on extended time periods in the Prescription Act applicable to minors.


As to the meaning of when a debt becomes due, the court accepted that the wording in the Act corresponds with that in the Prescription Act and that the concept “debt due” should bear the same meaning. Relying on constitutional and appellate authority, the court treated a debt as due when the creditor has a complete cause of action in the sense that the material facts necessary to institute action are in place. In delict, fault and unlawfulness are characterised as legal conclusions drawn from facts, but the creditor must have sufficient factual knowledge of the injury and its factual cause to ground a claim.


The court identified the three conjunctive requirements for condonation in section 3(4)(b): non-prescription (common cause), good cause, and absence of unreasonable prejudice.


On good cause, the court highlighted that an applicant must provide an explanation that is sufficiently full to enable the court to understand how the delay arose and to assess conduct and motives. It observed that the condonation application was itself launched long after the plea had raised non-compliance, and that no explanation was provided for the delay in bringing the condonation application once the need for it was apparent. The court also noted an “unexplained gap” in the applicant’s narrative, including a lack of detail about steps taken over several years to investigate the cause of the child’s condition.


Notwithstanding these deficiencies, the court considered factors bearing on fairness and the administration of justice. It accepted that the applicant’s socio-economic circumstances and dependence on public health services could realistically have impeded her ability to investigate causation and potential negligence, especially absent access to specialist advice. The court approached the “knowledge” issue with reference to authority cautioning against assuming that a patient will know, without professional advice and adequate information, what caused a medical condition or that it was attributable to error. It treated the core question as whether the applicant had reasonable grounds, prior to 2014, to suspect fault and to seek further advice; until then, the statutory knowledge requirement would not necessarily be met.


The court also considered the prospects of success as one factor in the good cause enquiry. It recorded that the expert material supported a diagnosis consistent with hypoxic-ischaemic injury, but stressed that the extensive absence of medical records limited the ability to identify timing, a specific hypoxic event, its cause, and the role of negligence. The court expressed concern that aspects of the expert analysis relied substantially on the applicant’s recollection many years after the event, and concluded that the applicant had no more than slim prospects of success on the merits. Even so, weighing all factors (including the position of the severely disabled minor who depended on others to litigate), the court concluded that it was in the interests of justice to find that good cause existed.


On prejudice, the court recognised that the applicant bore the onus to show the respondent was not unreasonably prejudiced. The applicant’s affidavit contained only a bare assertion of lack of prejudice. The respondent, by contrast, alleged prejudice based on missing records, the death and disappearance of key witnesses, and faded memories. The court accepted that missing records created difficulty for the respondent’s defence, but also observed that the same absence of records prejudiced the applicant in proving causation and negligence. Importantly, the court found it was not clear on the papers when the records were lost and therefore it was not established that the loss was caused by the applicant’s delay in giving notice; it also noted that the duty to safeguard records lay with the respondent.


In the circumstances, the court declined to find that the respondent’s prejudice was unreasonable to such an extent that the minor should be deprived of the opportunity to pursue the claim. The court therefore exercised its discretion to grant condonation under section 3(4).


Costs approach


On costs, the court distinguished condonation under the Act from ordinary condonation for non-observance of court procedure, and adopted the approach that, where opposed, costs should follow the result in applications of this nature. The respondent succeeded on the point in limine and was awarded costs for that issue. The applicant succeeded on the condonation application and was awarded costs for that portion, subject to excluding the costs already awarded against her on the preliminary issue.


Outcome and Relief


The court dismissed the applicant’s point in limine alleging an agreement not to oppose, and ordered the applicant to pay the costs occasioned by that adjudication, including the costs of two counsel, one being a Senior Counsel.


The court granted the applicant condonation for non-compliance with section 3 of the Act, and ordered that the costs of the condonation application follow the result, including the costs and fees of two counsel, one being a Senior Counsel, but expressly excluding the costs awarded on the point in limine.


Cases Cited


George v Fairmead (Pty) Ltd 1958 (2) SA 465 (A).


Bellairs v Hodnett and Another 1978 (1) SA 1109 (A).


Wissekerke and Another v Wissekerke 1970 (2) SA 550 (A).


Phillips v Aida Real Estate (Pty) Ltd 1975 (3) SA 198 (A).


Ex parte Sussens 1941 (TPD) 15.


Pretorius v Greyling 1947 (1) SA 171 (W).


Goosen v Van Zyl 1980 (1) SA 707 (O).


Xatula v Minister of Police, Transkei 1993 (4) SA 244 (TkGD).


Bikitsha v Eastern Cape Development Board 1988 (3) SA 522 (E).


Ras v Liquor Licensing Board Area 11, Kimberley 1966 (2) SA 232 (CPD).


Dhlamini v Minister of Law and Order and Another 1986 (4) SA 342 (D).


Premier, Western Cape Provincial Government v B L [2012] 1 All SA 465 (SCA).


Madinda v Minister of Safety and Security [2008] ZASCA 34; 2008 (4) SA 312 (SCA).


Minister of Agriculture and Land Affairs v C J Rance (Pty) Ltd 2010 (4) SA 109 (SCA).


Minister of Safety and Security v De Witt [2008] ZASCA 103; 2009 (1) SA 457 (SCA).


Links v Department of Health, Northern Province 2016 (4) SA 414 (CC).


Truter and Another v Deysel [2006] ZASCA 16; 2006 (4) SA 168 (SCA).


Minister of Finance and Others v Gore NO 2007 (1) SA 111 (SCA).


Silber v Ozen Wholesalers (Pty) Ltd 1954 (2) SA 345 (A).


MEC for Education, KwaZulu-Natal v Shange 2012 (5) SA 313 (SCA).


Premier, Western Cape v Lakay 2012 (2) SA 1 (SCA).


Makwelo v Minister of Safety and Security 2017 (1) SA 274 (GJ).


Legislation Cited


Institution of Legal Proceedings Against Certain Organs of State Act 40 of 2002.


Prescription Act 68 of 1969.


State Attorneys’ Act (as referred to in the judgment, section 3).


Rules of Court Cited


Uniform Rules of Court, Rule 35(1).


Uniform Rules of Court, Rule 35(5).


Uniform Rules of Court, Rule 35(6).


Uniform Rules of Court, Rule 35(8).


Uniform Rules of Court, Rule 35(10).


Held


The court held that the State Attorney’s letter indicating that the respondent would not oppose condonation did not constitute a binding agreement, waiver, or irrevocable admission preventing the respondent from opposing the application. In the absence of evidence of a request and acceptance giving rise to consensus, and in light of revocation before acceptance, no enforceable agreement arose. The court further held that waiver was not established because full knowledge and intention to abandon rights were not proved, and that the respondent was not bound because the State Attorney and counsel lacked a specific mandate to compromise the respondent’s position.


On the merits of condonation under section 3(4) of Act 40 of 2002, the court held that the claim had not prescribed and that, despite deficiencies in the applicant’s explanation and only slim prospects on the merits, good cause existed when evaluated in light of the applicant’s circumstances, lack of earlier actionable knowledge, and the realities of access to information and expertise. The court further held that the respondent had not shown prejudice of such an unreasonable kind as to justify refusing condonation, particularly given uncertainty as to when records were lost and the respondent’s responsibility for record-keeping.


LEGAL PRINCIPLES


The judgment applied the principle that an alleged concession not to oppose litigation relief will not bind a party as a contract unless the requirements of consensus are met; an offer may be revoked before acceptance, and revocation communicated before acceptance deprives the offeree of the ability to accept.


It applied established principles on mandate and authority, namely that an attorney or counsel acting under a general mandate is not entitled to compromise or abandon substantive rights to a client’s detriment without a specific mandate, and that a client is not bound where the representative exceeds authority. The judgment further applied the principle that waiver must be clearly proved, requiring proof of full knowledge of relevant facts and legal consequences and an intention to abandon the right.


On statutory condonation under section 3(4)(b) of the Institution of Legal Proceedings Against Certain Organs of State Act 40 of 2002, the court applied the principle that the statutory requirements are conjunctive: the applicant must show that the debt has not prescribed, that good cause exists for the failure, and that the organ of state was not unreasonably prejudiced.


In interpreting when a debt becomes due for purposes of the Act’s notice period, the court applied the approach that “debt due” aligns with the Prescription Act concept, and arises when the creditor has the material facts necessary to institute action. In delictual claims, fault and unlawfulness are treated as legal conclusions drawn from facts, and the relevant statutory “knowledge” focuses on material facts rather than legal conclusions; in professional-negligence contexts, time does not begin to run until the claimant has sufficient factual basis to suspect fault so as to prompt further enquiry.


On costs, the judgment applied the principle that condonation applications under the 2002 Act are not ordinary procedural indulgences but applications for permission within statutory parameters; where opposed, costs ordinarily follow the result, assessed separately for distinct issues where appropriate.

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[2017] ZAFSHC 213
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L v MEC for Health of the Free State Provincial Government (4016/2014) [2017] ZAFSHC 213; [2018] 1 All SA 522 (FB) (19 October 2017)

SAFLII
Note:
Certain
personal/private details of parties or witnesses have been
redacted from this document in compliance with the law
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SAFLII
Policy
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
(FREE
STATE DIVISION, BLOEMFONTEIN)
Case
Number: 4016/2014
In
the matter between:
L.
H. A.
Applicant
and
THE
MEC FOR HEALTH OF THE FREE STATE
PROVINCIAL
GOVERNMENT
Respondent/Defendant
JUDGMENT
BY:
MURRAY, AJ
HEARD
ON:
13 OCTOBER 2017
DELIVERED
ON:
19 OCTOBER 2017
[1]
This is an application in terms of s 3(4) of the Institution of Legal
Proceedings Against Certain Organs of State Act 40 of
2002 (“the
Act”).  The Applicant seeks condonation for the late
serving of her s 3(2) Notice of Intention to Institute
Legal
Proceedings (“the Notice”) against the Respondent.
[2]
The Applicant (the Plaintiff in the main action) instituted action
against the Respondent (the Defendant in the main action)
in her
representative capacity as the mother and natural guardian of M. M.
L., (“the minor”).  The 12-year old
boy was born in
the Thebe District Hospital, Harrismith, on […] 2005 and
suffers from cerebral palsy.
The Applicant alleges
that he suffered a hypoxic-ischemic insult during birth which
resulted in permanent severe brain damage,
inter
alia
because
of her alleged prolonged labour, and as a result of the alleged
negligence of the Respondent’s employees, and claims
R21
million in damages from the Respondent.
[3]
The main trial, on the merits only, was set down for ten (10)
consecutive court days from 9 to 20 October 2017.   But,

despite the requirement for condonation to be sought as soon as one
becomes aware of the need for it, this application was filed
on 7
September 2017, more than two years after the Respondent had denied
compliance with the Act in its Plea.  The application
was
therefore launched only a month before the trial was due to start.
That did not leave enough time to allow for the ordinary
time limits
within which to file opposing and replying papers and to allow the
issue of condonation to be resolved before the matter
came to trial.
The belated filing of this application has therefore inevitably
caused a considerable delay and a waste of
allocated trial days in a
matter which had been declared trial-ready in 2016 already.
[4]
Although the Respondent had by then already filed a Notice of
Intention to Oppose, the Applicant on 5 October 2017 set the
application down for 9 October 2017 in the trial court, purportedly
on “the unopposed roll”.  The Respondent filed
its
opposing papers on that first morning of “trial-time”,
with the Applicant insisting on time to consider the said
papers in
order to file a reply, which it did on the 11
th
.
The Respondent’s legal team then needed an opportunity to
consider and discuss its options with the Respondent and
the
application was only argued on the 13
th
.
[5]
The application resulted in two issues having to be resolved before
the trial could proceed, namely: 1) whether an agreement
was reached
that the Respondent would not oppose the condonation application, and
if so, whether the Respondent was entitled to
resile therefrom, and
accordingly whether the condonation application should be heard on an
unopposed basis;   and 2)
if the court finds that the
Respondent is entitled to oppose the application, whether the
Applicant has made out a case for condonation.
I agree with Mr
Claassen’s submission that the first issue should be dealt with
as a point
in
limine.
In
Limine
:
The “Agreement”:
[6]
The Applicant’s Particulars of Claim of 2 September 2014
alleged compliance with s 3(2)(a) of the Act.  The Respondent

raised no Special Pleas but took issue with the Applicant’s
alleged compliance in its Plea of 9 March 2015.
[7]
It is common cause that on 7 September 2017 the application was
served on the State Attorney who acts in this matter on behalf
of her
client, the Respondent.
[8]
The Legal Administration Officer (“the Legal Officer”)
who handles the case for the Respondent, deposed to the opposing

affidavit in which he claimed to be the only person who had the
authority to instruct the State Attorney on behalf of the Respondent

to settle or to reach agreements with other parties, which in this
instance he insists that he did not do.
[9]
He stated that the State Attorney forwarded the application to him
for instructions on 8 September 2017, and on 20 September
forwarded
to him an advice from the relevant Senior Counsel not to oppose the
application.  When he failed to respond to either
document
because he was ‘still investigating the claim and trying to
establish the whereabouts of medical records and all
the witnesses’,
the State Attorney sent the Applicant’s attorney a letter on 21
September 2017, in which she
inter
alia
confirmed
that the Respondent would not be opposing  the application.
[10]
On 26 September 2017 the Legal Officer, upon learning of the 21
September letter, immediately instructed the State Attorney
to
withdraw its contents and to notify the Applicant’s attorney
that the Respondent would indeed be opposing the application.
She
immediately dispatched a letter to that effect and on that same
morning also served and filed a Notice to Oppose.
[11]
On 27 September 2017 the Applicant’s attorneys alleged that the
21 September letter had amounted to an agreement and
warned the State
Attorney that she could not renege thereon.   On 4 October
they notified her that they did not consider
the condonation
application to be opposed and on 5 October 2017 set the application
down for hearing ‘on an unopposed basis’
on the first day
of trial.  On 9 October 2017, however, the Respondent filed
opposing papers, to which the Applicant replied
on Wednesday 11
October 2017.
[12]
The Respondent denied any agreement not to oppose and averred that
the State Attorney’s letter of 21 September had been
written
erroneously and without the Respondent’s instruction or
mandate.   The Legal Officer stated that the State

Attorney’s only authority was to defend the matter, not to
waive or abandon any of the Respondent’s rights, and averred

that, since neither she nor the Senior Counsel at the relevant time
had knowledge of the new facts which had emerged from his
investigation into the claim or, in view of those, of the
consequences of waiving the Respondent’s right to oppose,
neither
of them could have waived or abandoned such rights.
[13]
The Applicant remained adamant, however, that the 21 September letter
had either created an agreement from which the Respondent
could not
resile, or constituted an admission which it cannot withdraw, or
abandoned rights which the Respondent cannot reinstate.
[14]
Counsel for the Applicant, Mr Strydom SC, argued that, in the absence
of instructions from the Respondent, the latter’s
attorney and
Counsel had been entitled to take control of the matter and had
accordingly acted within their mandate on 21 September
2017 to agree
not to oppose the application.   With reference to
George
v Fairmead (Pty) Ltd
[1]
,
he
contended that the Respondent should therefore be bound by its
attorney’s ‘assent to the agreement’.
[15]
He argued, furthermore, that the Respondent had abandoned its right
to oppose by way of the said letter because an agreement
was reached
when the Respondent communicated to the Applicant that it would not
oppose the application.
[16]
His third submission was that with the 21 September 2017 letter it
became common cause that the application was to proceed
on an
unopposed basis and that, accordingly, the Respondent with its 26
September letter was attempting to withdraw an admission.
For
this argument he relied on
Bellairs
v Hodnett and Another
[2]
to
state that any party who seeks to withdraw an admission needs to give
a satisfactory explanation for its withdrawal, which requirement
the
Respondent’s explanation did not meet, and pointed out that the
withdrawal of an admission normally happened by way of
a substantive
application.
[17]
Mr Claassen SC, Counsel for the Respondent, denied that the 21
September 2017 letter had created an agreement which had disentitled

the Respondent to oppose the condonation application. He pointed out
that in the absence of any request from the Applicant to allow
the
institution of legal proceedings without a valid Notice, or to
undertake not to oppose an application for condonation, whether
by
way of a request in terms of s 3(1)(b) of the Act or otherwise, there
had been neither an offer from the Applicant nor acceptance
of an
offer, and therefore no agreement.
[18]
He contended, furthermore, that, in so far as the 21 September letter
might have been construed as an ‘offer’,
the Applicant
only responded and alleged a so-called ‘agreement’ after
the 26 September letter had already informed
him that the Respondent
had withdrawn the contents of its previous letter and after the
Notice to Oppose had already been filed.
Which, according
to Mr Claassen, meant that the ‘offer’ had not been
‘accepted’ and that the Respondent
had acted within its
rights to withdraw it before acceptance.
[19]
Support for Mr Claassens’ submission is to be found in the
Supreme Court of Appeal’s confirmation in
Wissekerke
and Another v Wissekerke
[3]
and
in
Phillips
v Aida Real Estate (Pty) Ltd
[4]
that an
open offer can be withdrawn at any time before acceptance without
amounting to breach of an undertaking or an agreement.
Cristie
[5]
confirms
that “the general rule is that the offeror may withdraw or
revoke or ‘repudiate’ his offer at any time
before it has
been accepted.  This corresponds, furthermore, with the
principle set out in
Kerr
[6]
that:

if at any time
before acceptance an offeree receives a notification that the offer
is withdrawn, or, as is often said, revoked,
he loses the opportunity
to accept”.
In
this regard it has even been said that

it
would amount to dolus on the part of an offeree to claim to have an
agreement when he knows full well that the offeror no longer
intends
to enter into an agreement with him”.
[7]
[20]
Despite Mr Strydom’s submission that the word “
confirm”
in the
21 September letter suggests communication between the Applicant’s
attorneys and the State Attorney, there is no indication
in the
affidavits or the annexures that the Applicant did request an
undertaking from the Respondent not to oppose its application
for
condonation and that the 21 September letter therefore constituted
the communication of an agreement to that effect between
the parties.
[21]
In the absence of such a request by the Applicant, I find persuasive
the analogy of the 21 September letter being an ‘offer’

which the Applicant was no longer at liberty to accept on 27
September because by then the Respondent had already withdrawn or

revoked the offer not to oppose and had communicated this revocation
to the Applicant in its 26 September letter and its 26 September

Notice of Intention to Oppose.
[22]
Mr Claassen also denied any alleged waiver of the Respondent’s
rights to oppose, contending that when the State Attorney
dispatched
the 21 September letter neither she nor Counsel had the required full
knowledge of all the new facts uncovered during
the Deponent’s
investigation, namely the demise of one key witness and the
disappearance of another key witness, but also
the mysterious
disappearance of the relevant hospital and clinic files in this and
five other CP matters.  He averred that
they could therefore not
have been aware of the legal consequences for the Respondent of any
decision not to oppose, and could
therefore not have had the
necessary intention to surrender such rights.
[8]
He submitted that, in addition, neither of them had been
authorised
[9]
or specially
mandated
[10]
to waive such
rights, and pointed out that the Respondent’s original
instruction to deny compliance with the Act had never
been varied,
amended or waived.
[23]
Mr Strydom contended that, because of their original instruction to
represent the Respondent, the State Attorney and Counsel
needed no
special mandate to conclude the alleged agreement and that,
consequently, the Respondent had to be bound by their concession.

But, the party who alleges waiver, must clearly prove that the
person who is alleged to have waived his rights, or, in the
case of
an agent, his client’s rights, had full knowledge both of the
facts and of the legal consequences thereof and had
intended to
surrender those.
[11]
This the
Applicant did not do.
[24]
In view of a lack of any evidence that the Respondent’s
original instruction to deny compliance was ever retracted, I
have to
agree with Mr Claassen that the State Attorney’s and the
Counsel’s general mandate to act on behalf of the
Respondent
does not authorise them to act to the Respondent’s detriment
and directly against its instructions
[12]
and so to infringe upon the rights of a State Department which, after
all, is the custodian of public funds.
[25]
It is an accepted principle in our law that a legal representative
who is appointed to sue or is clad with only a general authority,

such as that conferred on the State Attorney by s 3 of the State
Attorneys’ Act, cannot compromise or settle to his client’s

detriment without a specific mandate or authorisation to do
so.
[13]
,
[14]
See in this regard also
Bikitsha
v Eastern Cape Development Board
[15]
.
[26]
I agree with the principle set out in
Ras
v Liquor Licensing Board Area 11, Kimberley
[16]
that a client is not bound by his attorney’s or counsel’s
action where he or she has exceeded his or her mandate.
I
accept, furthermore, in the absence of any evidence to the contrary,
that the State Attorney and Counsel in the present application
had no
special mandate to settle or to compromise and that they had
therefore not been authorised to agree to do away with, waive
or
abandon the Respondent’s right to oppose the application
[17]
.
[27]
In the premises I find that the letter of 21 September 2017 did not
create an agreement from which the Respondent could not
resile and
that, accordingly, Respondent had the right to oppose the application
and such opposition was not unreasonable.
[28]
The Respondent was substantially successful on this issue and there
is no reason to deviate from the normal practice regarding
costs,
wherefore the Applicant is to be ordered to pay the costs occasioned
by the adjudication of the point
in
limine,
such
costs to include the costs of two counsel, one of whom a Senior
Counsel.
The
Condonation Application:
[29]
Act 40 of 2002 determines that, before a creditor can institute an
action to recover a debt from an organ of State, s 3(2)(a)
of the Act
requires such creditor to serve on such organ of State a notice of
its intention to do so

within
six months from the date on which the debt became due”.
[30]
It is not in dispute that the Applicant’s attorneys, Mokoduo
Incorporated (“M.E.D. Attorneys’), on 30 June
2014, more
than 9 years after the minor’s birth on 5 May 2005, sent the
Applicant’s Section 3(2) Notice by registered
mail to the Free
State Department of Health and thereafter, on 2 September 2014,
issued summons against the Respondent.
The Applicant
averred that it had merely brought the application for condonation
out of an abundance of caution.   That,
of course, is not
correct since its alleged compliance remained in issue.
[31]
In her particulars of claim, the Applicant made three averments
regarding compliance with the Act, namely (1) that she has
been
“pardoned” from compliance with any statutory time
limitation by the minor’s minority; alternatively (2)
that she
gave due and written notice in terms of s 3(2)(a) of the Act on 30
June 2014; further alternatively, (3) that she shall
seek condonation
for any non-compliance with any statutory time limitation.
[32]
The Respondent disputes compliance, wherefore this application is
essential.
[33]
The Applicant’s first averment is untenable.  In
Premier,
Western Cape Provincial Government v BL
[18]
the
court held that the term “creditor” in the Act is defined
to include a person who acts on behalf of a minor, and
that someone
such as the Applicant who brings the action in her capacity as mother
and natural guardian fell within such definition
and accordingly had
to give notice in accordance with the provisions of that Act, not in
accordance with the extended time periods
provided for in the
Prescription Act 68 of 1969
regarding debts pertaining to minors. She
therefore has to adhere to the requirement in s 3(2)(a) of the Act to
notify the relevant
organ of State of her intention to institute
action “
within
six months from the date on which the debt becomes due”.
[34]
The date on which the six months’ period commences will be
determined by the facts which establish the date on which
the debt
becomes due.
[35]
S 3(2)(a) read with s 3(3)(a) of the Act determines, respectively,
that

(2) A notice must

(a)
within six
months from the date on which the debt became due, be served on the
organ of state in accordance with s 4(1)”
and

(3) For purposes
of subsection 2(a)-
(a)
a debt may
not be regarded as being due until the creditor has knowledge of the
identity of the organ of state and the facts giving
rise to the debt,
but a creditor must be regarded as having required such knowledge as
soon as he or she or it could have acquired
it by exercising
reasonable care, unless the organ of state wilfully prevented him or
her or it from acquiring such knowledge.”
[36]
S 3(4)(a) of the Act gives a creditor the right to apply to court to
have its non-compliance with s 3(2)(a) condoned where
a Respondent
relies on such non-compliance.  The court’s discretion to
grant condonation is not unfettered, though,
as is clear from
Madinda
v Minister of Safety and Security
[19]
.
S 3(4)(b) permits the court to do so only once it is satisfied
[20]
that the Applicant had established all three of what Majiedt AJA, as
he then was, referred to in
Minister
of Agriculture and Land Affairs v CJ Rance (Pty) Ltd
[21]
as ‘conjunctive requirements’, namely that:

(i)
the debt has not been extinguished by prescription;
(ii)
good cause exists for the failure by the creditor; and
(iii)
the organ of state was not unreasonably prejudiced by the
failure.”
[22]
[37]
This application for condonation of the late filing of the s 3(2)(a)
notice  was only filed more than three years later,
on 7
September 2017, despite the requirement, as confirmed in
Madinda
v Minister of Safety and Security
[23]
,
that condonation in terms of the Act be applied for as soon as the
party concerned realises that it is required and despite the

Respondent having denied the Applicant’s compliance with the
Act in its Plea three years earlier already. No explanation
for that
delay is given in the application.
[38]
For his argument regarding the Applicant’s alleged compliance
with the provisions of s 3(2) of the Act, Mr Strydom relied
mostly on
the Constitutional Court case
Links
v Department of Health, Northern Province
[24]
which,
as Mr Claassen pointed out, focused on the interpretation of
s 12(3)
of the
Prescription Act 68.  But
his reliance on this case for
the interpretation of the concept “
debt
is due”
which
determines the date on which the six month period for the filing of
the
S 3(2)(a)
Notice starts to run, is, in my view, justified.
[39]
As Mr Strydom pointed out, the wording of s 3(2)(a) of the
Act
“from the date on which the debt became due”
corresponds with that of
s 12(1) of the Prescription Act 68 of 1969 (“the
Prescription
Act&rdquo
;) which determines that prescription shall commence to run

as
soon as the debt is due”
;
and the
condition in
s 3(3)(a)
in the Act that debt may only be regarded as
being due when

the
creditor has knowledge of the identity of the organ of state and of
the facts giving rise to the debt”
corresponds
with that of
s 12(3)
of the
Prescription Act.  There
is no
indication that the concept “debt due” has a different
meaning in the Act for purposes of determining the date
of
commencement of the 6 months period.
[40]
In the
Links
-case
Zondo J with reference to
Truter
and Another v Deysel
[25]
interpreted the meaning of “
debt
due”
,
including a delictual debt which is owing and payable, to mean:
[26]

A debt is due in
this sense when the creditor acquires a complete cause of action for
the recovery of the debt, that is, when the
entire set of facts which
the creditor must prove in order to succeed with his or her claim
against the debtor is in place, or,
in other word, when everything
has happened which would entitle the creditor to institute action and
to pursue his or her claim.”
[41]
He continued, still with reference to
Truter
[27]
that

In a delictual
claim, the requirements of fault and unlawfulness do not constitute
factual ingredients of the cause of action, but
are legal conclusions
to be drawn from the facts.”
[42]
The Court also quoted with approval
[28]
a statement in
Loubser
[29]

A cause of action
means the combination of facts that are material for the plaintiff to
prove in order to succeed with his action.
Such facts
must enable a court to arrive at certain legal conclusions regarding
unlawfulness and fault, the constituent elements
of a delictual cause
of action being a combination of factual and legal conclusions,
namely a causative act, harm, unlawfulness
and culpability or fault.”
[43]
It is common cause that the Applicant’s claim has not
prescribed, and that the first requirement for condonation has

therefore been met.   In issue in this application is the
Applicant’s compliance with the second and third s (3)4(b)

requirements, namely those of s 3(4)(b)(ii) ‘good cause’
for the delay and of s 3(4)(b)(iii) no unreasonable prejudice
to the
Respondent.
[44]
One needs to keep in mind that, as stated in
Madinda
[30]
,
there are two competing elements at play in s 3(4)(b), namely the
Applicant’s right to have the merits of the case tried
by a
court of law, but also the right of the Respondent as an organ of
State not to be unduly prejudiced by delay beyond the statutorily

prescribed limit for giving notice. The Act fetters the Applicant’s
right to have the merits of its case tried in court by
prescribing
the three requirements to be met before its case may be heard.

Good
cause”:
[45]
To determine whether ‘good cause’ was proved, one needs
to examine those factors which pertain to the fairness
of granting
the relief and the proper administration of justice, such as, for
instance, the reasons for the delay, the sufficiency
of the
explanation offered, the Applicant’s
bona
fides,
any
contribution by other persons or parties to the delay, the
Applicant’s responsibility for the delay, and the prospects
of
success in the proposed action.
[31]
[46]
The minimum requirement for ‘good cause’ for the
Applicant’s failure to give timeous notice is set out in
[32]
Silber v
Ozen Wholesalers (Pty) Ltd
[33]
,
namely that:

the respondent
must at least furnish an explanation of his default sufficiently full
to enable the Court to understand how it really
came about and to
assess his conduct and motives.”
[47]
The court, according to Heher JA
[34]
,
has accepted that this principle is also applicable to the
interpretation of s 3(4)(b)(ii) of the Act.   He stressed

that

good
cause for the delay

was
not simply a mechanical matter of cause and effect but that the court
needs to decide whether the Applicant has proffered

acceptable
reasons for nullifying, in whole or at least substantially, any
culpability on his part pertaining to the delay in serving
the notice
timeously”.
[48]
In
MEC
for Education, Kwazulu-Natal v Shange
[35]
Snyders
JA cautioned, however, that the court is to exercise a wide
discretion in this regard;

that
‘good cause’ may include a number of factors that are
entirely dependent on the facts of each case and that the
prospects
of success of the intended claim play a significant role”.
Socio-economic
circumstances:
[49]
The Applicant requested this Court in evaluating ‘good cause’
for the delay in filing her s 3(2) Notice to have
regard to her
socio-economic circumstances.   These she listed as: that
she completed Grade 12 at Lerato Thando Secondary
School in
Harrismith, but has no other formal education or work experience;
that she is currently 32 years old, has never been
married, live in a
basic 2-bedroom house in Indabezwe, Harrismith, with her parents, her
five siblings, and her two children, and
is able to read, write, and
speak Isizulu and English.
[50]
Although none of these factors individually are highly significant in
explaining why it took the Applicant nine years to get
to a point
where she realised that she might have someone to hold liable for her
child’s condition, they are indicative of
certain
socio-economic factors which would potentially have hampered or
prevented a very pro-active investigation into the real
reason for
and cause of her child’s condition, such as an unsophisticated
environment, basic and overcrowded living conditions,
a lack of
means, access - and probably transport problems, which meant her
being totally dependent on public medical services and
facilities.
Medical
grounds
:
[51]
Regarding the medical grounds for her claim the Applicant avers that
during 1 and [….] 2005 she endured prolonged periods
of
labour; that the minor was born by natural vaginal delivery; that he
was immediately separated from her and placed in another
ward and
that a few minutes after birth the nurse brought him to her and told
her they would be discharged that afternoon.
[52]
Although she has passed matric, one has to keep in mind that there is
no evidence that she had the medical knowledge to notice
or realise
the significance of or to evaluate any unexplained events or
symptoms, or even to know what was normal or not.
[53]
Zondo J cautioned that without advice at the time from a professional
or expert in the medical profession, the applicant in
the
Links-
case
[36]
where an ischemic incident caused that applicant’s condition,
could not have known what had caused his condition.
He
added that it seemed to him that it would be unrealistic for the law
to expect a litigant who has no knowledge of medicine to
have
knowledge of what caused his condition without having first had an
opportunity of consulting a relevant medical professional
or
specialist for advice.   That in turn requires that the
litigant be in possession of sufficient facts to cause a reasonable

person to suspect that something has gone wrong and to seek
advice.
[37]
[54]
In
Links
Counsel
for the Applicant submitted that, even if the applicant knew by 5
August 2006 that he had lost his thumb, he did not and
could not know
what had caused it and the eventual loss of function of the left hand
(namely that it was

most
probably due to the plaster of Paris that was too tight… and
not removed soon enough… when ischemia occurred”)
.
The Court stated that the reason why the applicant lost his thumb and
what caused such loss are factual questions
and not a legal
conclusion.   They are therefore part of the facts which
the applicant had to establish before it could
be said that he had
knowledge of the facts.
[38]
The same principle would in my view apply to the Applicant in
the present case.
The
Applicant’s role in the Delay
:
[55]
The Applicant averred that the minor was approximately 6 months old
when she noticed that he was unable to sit and attended
the Intabezwe
Clinic to consult with a doctor; that the doctor examined the child
and told her that there was no cause for concern
and that the minor
would reach his normal milestones in his own time.
[56]
The next pro-active step at her initiative apparently only happened
eighteen months later. She avers that when the minor was

approximately 2 years old, she realised that his condition was not
improving and decided to return to the Clinic where the nurse
on duty
wrote her a referral letter to attend the Mofumahadi Mopeli Manapo
Regional Hospital.  There the duty doctor examined
the minor and
informed her that he was brain-damaged because of a lack of oxygen to
the brain at the time of birth, as a result
of which he would not
develop normally and wrote her a referral letter for the minor to
attend physiotherapy at the Thebe Hospital.
Unexplained
Six-year Gap:
[57]
On the Applicant’s own version the above two steps appear to be
the only pro-active ones that she took to discover the
facts
pertaining to her child’s condition. She mentions no dates.
Thereafter there is simply a complete blank, with no information

whatsoever about the next five years until she allegedly met the
unidentified woman on some unspecified date in 2014 and was directed

to MED attorneys.
[58]
It can therefore not be said that she diligently tried to obtain the
information necessary to institute action.  There
is no ‘full
explanation’ covering the entire period of delay which enables
the Court to assess how the delay really
come about, either, as
emphasised in
Minister
of Agriculture and Land Affairs v CJ Rance
[39]
and as
held to be a minimum requirement to enable a Court to assess the
motives and conduct of Applicant, as specified in
Premier,
Western Cape v Lakay
[40]
.
One
therefore needs to look at other factors to determine if they
compensate for such lack.
[59]
That being confined to public medical facilities was an impediment in
her acquisition of knowledge of the required facts is
clear from the
Applicant’s averment that nobody suggested or intimated to her
that the minor’s condition was in any
way preventable or
related to a mistake made by anyone at the Hospital even though she
had seen at least the two doctors referred
to in her affidavit.
[60]
It does seem questionable, though, that she would never in twelve
years have asked why the oxygen-deprivation and resulting
CP
happened, especially in view of her subsequent pregnancy and concerns
that she must have had of having another brain damaged
child. That is
where the socio-economic factors come into play again.  As Prof
Solomons stated in his report, for instance,
he could not come to a
certain conclusion because an early MRI had not been done. Had the
Applicant had access to private medical
facilities and specialists
this problem might not have occurred and early intervention might
have been possible.
Other
People’s role in the Delay:
[61]
The Applicant avers that no-one ever intimated or suggested to her
that the minor’s condition was in any way preventable
or
related to a mistake made by anyone at the Hospital, so she never
suspected that the Hospital might have been negligent or that
facts
which could support a claim against the Hospital existed.
[62]
She stated, furthermore, that she was never shown any records
pertaining to her maternity, labour, the minor’s treatment
at
the Hospital, so she never realised that the Hospital might have been
negligent in their monitoring and/or delivery of the minor
or that
facts existed which supported a possible claim against the said
Hospital.
[63]
In
Links
the
applicant was given an explanation with regard to the nature, extent
and possible consequences of the medical procedure to amputate
his
thumb, but he was not told what had caused his problem (namely the
too tight plaster of paris).
[64]
In casu
it was
submitted that the Applicant was informed by a doctor in 2007 already
that the minor’s medical condition stemmed from
a lack of
oxygen to the brain at the time of birth and implied that that was
therefore the date on which the Applicant would have
had knowledge of
all the necessary facts to establish a cause of action, or would at
least have had knowledge of sufficient facts
to start searching for
the cause of the lack of oxygen and for someone to hold liable for
it.
[65]
But, as Zondo J cautioned,
[41]
one should not make the mistake of presupposing that any explanation
given to the applicant by the medical staff would have identified
medical
error
as the actual or even potential cause of her injuries.  (My
emphasis)
[66]
Zondo J made it clear that to require knowledge of causative
negligence for the test in s 12(3) to be satisfied, would set
the bar
too high. He warned, however, that in cases involving professional
negligence, the party relying on prescription, as, in
my view, the
Applicant in the present case relies on non-compliance with s 3 of
the Act, must at least show that the plaintiff
was in possession of
sufficient facts to cause them on reasonable grounds to think that
the injuries were due to the fault of the
medical staff.  Until
there are reasonable grounds for suspecting fault so as to cause the
plaintiff to seek further advice,
the claimant cannot be said to have
knowledge of the facts from which the debt arises.
[42]
[67]
The question then is whether in the present case the Applicant can be
said to have had reasonable grounds before 2014 for suspecting
that
the minor’s injuries could be attributed to negligence of the
Respondent’s employees and when she could be said
to have had
knowledge of all the material facts from which the debt arose or
which she needed to know in order to institute action.
[68]
The Supreme Court of Appeal said through Cameron JA and Brand JA that
it has in a series of decisions, been emphasised that
time begins to
run against the creditor when it has the minimum facts that are
necessary to institute action.
[43]
In a claim for delictual liability based on the Acquilian action
negligence and causation are essential elements of the cause of

action.  Both have factual and legal elements.
[44]
Until the applicant had knowledge of facts that would have led her to
think that possibly there had been negligence and that
this had
caused the minor’s condition, she would have lacked knowledge
of the necessary facts contemplated in ss 3(2)(a)
and 3(3)(a).
[45]
[69]
Spilg J in
Makwelo
v Minister of Safety and Security
[46]
quoted
from para [20]
Truter
where
the Court held that the type of knowledge required is only of the
material facts from which the debt arises –

it
does not require knowledge of the relevant legal conclusions (i.e.
that the known facts constitute negligence) or of the existence
of an
expert opinion which supports such conclusions”.
[70]
On the facts at my disposal, it seems highly improbable that the
Applicant before 2014 would have had the type of knowledge
that is
required to trigger the running of prescriptive time, and which has
been defined as:

Mere
opinion or supposition is not enough:   there must be
justified, true belief.  Belief, on its own, is insufficient.

Belief that happens to be true is also insufficient.   For
there to be knowledge, the belief must be justified.”
[47]
Furthermore, “belief without apparent warrant is not knowledge;
nor is assertion and unjustified suspicion, vehemently
controverted
allegation or subjective conviction”.
Prospects
of Success:
[71]
The Applicant alleges that during early 2014 she met a woman at the
Hospital who indicated to her that she had instituted action
for
damages against the Government due to negligence on the part of the
Hospital when she gave birth to her child; that that woman
suggested
that she contact her attorneys (MED Attorneys) with whom she then
consulted during May 2014 after receiving their details
from this
woman.
[72]
According to her affidavit, upon hearing of the circumstances
surrounding the minor’s birth the attorney indicated that
he
believed her to potentially have a claim against the Government due
to the negligence of its employees at the Hospital.
He informed
her that further investigations needed to be conducted to establish
whether the relevant medical institutions could
be held liable but
advised that they gave notice to the relevant Government Department
in the meantime that she intended to institute
action.  On her
instructions the attorney then sent the s 3(2) notice to the FS
Department of Health on 30 June 2014.
[73]
She avers, furthermore, that in August 2014 she attended a
consultation with a Radiologist, Prof S Andronikau who performed
an
MRI on the minor and delivered a report in which he concluded that

Features are those
of chronic evolution of a global insult to the brain, due to hypoxic
ischaemic injury, of the partial prolonged
variety, most likely
occurring at term”.
Based
on those findings her attorneys advised that a claim against the
Government based on the negligence of its employees would
be
potentially successful and she instructed them to proceed with this
action.
Prospects
of Success:
[74]
The Applicant does not deal with the prospects of success on the
merits in her founding affidavit. But, for a determination
of the
prospects of success on the merits, the Court’s attention was
directed to the findings in the Medico-legal report
of a radiologist,
Prof Andronikau, and those recorded in the three sets of joint
minutes between the Paediatric Neurologists, between
the Nursing
Specialists, and between the Obstetrician and Gynaecologists.
[75]
Prof Andronikau’s finding that

Features are those
of chronic evolution of a global insult to the brain, due to hypoxic
ischaemic injury, of the partial prolonged
variety, most likely
occurring at term”.
is
based on an MRI scan of the minor’s brain at the age of 9.
[76]
The joint minute between the specialist paediatricians, Prof Solomon
and Dr Griessel, recorded the following important findings:
1.

M.’s brain
MRI changes are indicative of partial prolonged hypoxic ischemic
injury at term”;
2.    “In
the setting of absent medical records and maternal history of sucking
and swallowing abnormality,
timing of the partial prolonged hypoxic
ischemic injury [in] the intrapartum period cannot be excluded”,
and
3.
“There is no evidence for hypoxic ischemic injury in the
antepartum or postpartum periods.”
[77]
But, significantly, Dr Griessel cautioned that due to the lack of
documentation there is also no evidence for peripartum injury.
And
the report of Prof Solomon itself contains many concerning
observations, such as, for instance,  that due to the
absence of
antenatal, obstetric and resuscitation records,

complicated
by the absence of early MRI neuroimaging” M.s fulfils one the
three “Volpe’s features of intrapartum
asphyxia, and none
of the essential 2014 criteria of the Task Force of the American
College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology”
“to define
an acute intrapartum hypoxic event as sufficient to cause cerebral
palsy.”
[78]
The joint minute between the nursing specialists, Prof AGW Nolte and
Mrs EE Bekker reflects that they agreed that there was
insufficient
information to come to a conclusion about maternal and fetal
condition during
pregnancy
and
disagreed
about the following regarding
labour
:
Mrs Bekker reported that:

1.   The
quality of care during the intra-partum cannot be evaluated due to
the unavailability of components of the maternity
case record
2.    The
existence of a discharge summary indicates that documents were
completed
3.
There was a good Apgar score (7/10 and 8/10) recorded, and
4.    No
clinical signs of Hypoxic Ischemic Encephalopathy were recorded on
discharge.”
Prof
Nolte reported that:

The nurses who
cared for the Applicant delivered sub-standard care in that they did
not:
1.
Do or
record observations of the fetal or maternal condition according to
the Maternity Guidelines (2000)
2.
Refer the
Applicant to a doctor when there was prolonged labour
3.
Keep
accurate records of the case.”
[79]
The joint minute between the Obstetrician/Gynaecologists, Dr Schoon
and Dr Hofmeyr merely agreed that the radiology reports
by Dr Otto
and Prof Andronikou

confirm
MRI findings supportive of the diagnosis of Hypoxic Ischaemic
Encephalopathy”.
[80]
The common thread throughout the expert reports is the absence of the
medical records to support or eliminate many other potential
causes
of the minor’s condition.  That leads to many unanswerable
discrepancies, such as the observation in Dr Hofmeyr’s
report
that

the
maternity register notes that both mom and baby were stable and
discharged for further home care on Tuesday 3 May 2005 at 14:30”

(discharge on day one after an uncomplicated normal delivery is
standard practice”.
[81]
A further cause for concern is that to a large extent the information
on which the experts’ observations and conclusions
is based
originates from the history obtained from the Applicant herself.
Her recollection of specific detail and of exactly
what did or did
not happen in and during her stay in the hospital and during the
labour process in 2005 must inevitably be dimmed
by the passage of
nine to twelve years, especially in view thereof that she has since
had another pregnancy and gone through another
birth process five
years ago, in 2012, and especially in view thereof that the
documentation to confirm or refute her version is
absent.
[82]
My further problem is that while the expert reports appear to confirm
a diagnosis of Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy, they
still cannot
conclusively pinpoint the time of the event, do not identify a
specific hypoxic event or confirm the reason for its
occurrence, or
reveal what role, if any, negligence by the Respondent’s
employees played in the process. Unfortunately, therefore,
I cannot
conclude that the Applicant has more than a slim prospect of success
on the merits.
[83]
The question then is whether, if all of the above factors are
considered together, the Applicant can be said to have established

‘good cause’ for the delay.
[84]
In my view all of the above factors do tie in with the socio-economic
background and circumstances set out above.  Although
the
Applicant certainly did not play a very pro-active role in trying to
obtain the facts necessary to establish a cause of action,
there is
no indication either that she was the direct cause of the delay,
except indirectly through inaction.   One has
to keep in
mind, furthermore, that the real subject of this action is a minor
child M. who has severe brain damage and is totally
dependent on
others to conduct the matter on his behalf.
[85]
That the Applicant’s acquisition of the required knowledge to
establish a cause of action had been seriously affected
by the lack
of records pertaining to her maternity and labour, and to the minor’s
treatment at the Hospital cannot be denied.
For, as Zondo
JA stated in
Links
v Department of Health, Northern Province
[48]

the first sentence
of the passage is the important one.   In it the applicant
said that he did not know and could not
know, without the hospital
records and notes in the file, what the cause of the problem was and
who or what was responsible for
it.”
[86]
The problem regarding the lack of record appears to persist to this
day.  The Applicant lists the discovery requests by
her
attorney: a Rule 35(1), (8) and (10) Notice on 18 August 2015, a Rule
35(6) notice on 12 April 2016; and a Rule 35(5) request.

During argument it transpired that, despite the Respondent’s
Discovery on 8 March 2015, its provision of the Delivery Register
in
the form of a disk on 28 April 2016, and its reply to the Rule 35(5)
request on 29 August 2016, the only other medical document
available
to the Applicant was the Road to Health Chart which had been in the
Applicant’s own possession anyway.  During
argument it
emerged that, despite averments to the contrary, the Duty Roster and
the Admission and Discharge Records had not been
provided to the
Applicant.  This seems to be confirmed by their absence in the
expert reports submitted by the Applicant,
while they do appear, for
instance, in the report of Dr Schoon, one of the Respondent’s
experts.
[87]
I therefore respectfully agree with the finding quoted with approval
by Cloete JA in
Premier,
Western Cape
[49]
that

given
the applicant’s socio-economic background and the difficulties
she faced in ascertaining the facts on which her cause
of action is
based, her explanation for her failure to give the notice to
respondent within the requisite six month period, is
in my view
acceptable.”
[88]
In view of all of the factors evaluated above and based on the facts
of this case, I believe that it would be in the interests
of justice
to find that “good cause” for the delay does exist, so
that the second leg of the statutory requirement
is satisfied.
The
Third Requirement: Respondent’s prejudice:
[89]
But that still leaves the third requirement, namely that of ‘no
unreasonable prejudice to the Defendant’.
The Applicant
has to prove that there is no such prejudice.   In this
case, however, the Applicant merely avers that
the Defendant has not
been unreasonably prejudiced as a result of her failure to timeously
provide it with a s 3(2)(a) Notice without
giving any reasons or
grounds for this submission whatsoever and avers, in the alternative,
that the Court should be mindful of
the minor’s sacrosanct
Constitutional rights which had ‘clearly’ been
infringed by the Respondent.
But as Heher JA stated in
Madinda
[50]
although
the onus was on the applicant to bring the application within the
terms of the statute, it should be slow to assume prejudice
for which
the respondent itself did not lay a basis.
[90]
The Respondent maintains that the Applicant’s long delay in
serving the Notice caused the serious prejudice that the
Respondent
now faces in that the majority of the medical records and
documentation regarding this case have inexplicably disappeared;
in
that a material witness, Ms Maseko, the nurse who completed the
minor’s Road to Health Chart on which the first note of
brain
damage only appeared in 2008, passed away on 29 June 2010; in that Dr
Matla, the doctor who attended to labour cases at Thebe
Hospital on 1
and 2 May 2005, resigned from the Respondent’s employ in 2010
and has since then disappeared without a trace;
and in that memories
fade with the passage of such a long time.
[91]
The problem of the missing medical and hospital records does not
affect only the Respondent’s ability to defend itself,

however.   It also poses a serious challenge to the
Applicant to prove causality, that is, a causal link between the

minor’s present medical condition (
inter
alia
cerebral
palsy and brain damage) and some hypoxic-ischemic incident or injury
or event which can be identified as the cause thereof
and which can
be ascribed to the negligence of the Respondent’s employees.
[92]
It is not evident, either, that the problem of the lost records can
be ascribed to the delay in filing the s 3(2)(a) Notice,
because
there is no indication of when they were lost, especially in view
thereof that the statutory duty and responsibility to
safeguard
records lie with the Respondent.
[93]
In the circumstances of this case I cannot find that the prejudice
suffered by the Respondent is unreasonable to such an extent
that, in
the absence of evidence to the contrary, the applicant and the minor
child should be penalised for that by depriving them
of the
opportunity to state their case in court.
[94]
Therefore, in the specific circumstances of this case I consider it
to be fair and in the interest of justice to exercise my
discretion
to grant condonation for the Applicant’s non-compliance with s
3 of the Act.
Costs:
[95]
Regarding the costs of the application for condonation Snyders JA in
MEC for
Education, KZN v Shange
referred
with approval to Cloete JA’s approach in
Premier,
Western Cape v Lakay
[51]
:

Ordinarily, in
applications for condonation for non-obsevance of court procedure, a
litigant is obliged to seek the indulgence of
the court whatever the
attitude of the other side and for that reason will have to pay the
latter’s costs if it does oppose,
unless the opposition was
unreasonable.  I doubt that this is the correct approach in
matters such as the present, as an application
for condonation under
the 2002 Act has nothing to do with non-observance of court
procedure, but is for the permission to enforce
a right, which
permission may be granted within prescribed statutory parameters; and
such an application is (in terms of s 3(4))
only necessary if the
organ of State relies on a creditor’s failure to serve a
notice.   In the circumstances there
is much to be said for
the view that where an application for condonation in a case such as
the present is opposed, costs should
follow the result”
[96]
I see no reason to follow a different approach.  The costs in
this application should therefore follow the result.
[97]
THEREFORE
THE FOLLOWING ORDER IS MADE:
1.
The
Applicant’s
point-in-limine
alleging an agreement not to oppose is dismissed with costs, which
costs are to include the costs of two counsel, one of which
a Senior
Counsel.
2.
The
Applicant’s application for condonation is granted with costs,
which costs are to include the costs and fees of two counsel,
one of
which a Senior Counsel, but excluding the costs pertaining to the
order in paragraph 1 above.
_______________
H.
MURRAY, AJ
On
behalf of the Applicant/Plaintiff:
Adv. G.J. Strydom SC
Adv A Viljoen
Instructed by:
McIntyre Van der Post
Attorneys
BLOEMFONTEIN
On
behalf of the Respondent/Defendant: Adv. J. Y. Claassen SC
Adv T L Manye
Instructed by:
Ms B Maranyane
State Attorney
BLOEMFONTEIN
[1]
1958 (2) SA 465
AD at 471
[2]
1978 (1) 1109 (AD) at 1150
[3]
1970 (2) 550 (A) at 557 E
[4]
1975 (3) SA 198
(A) at 207 H.
[5]
Christie’s The Law of Contract
in South Africa, 6
th
Edition, at 54
[6]
The Principles of the Law of
Contract, Sixth Edition, at 73
[7]
Christie,
supra,
at 54.
[8]
Christie’s Law of Contract in
South Africa, 7
th
Edition, at 512;   Ex parte Sussens 1941 (TPD) 15.
[9]
Pretorius v Greyling
1947 (1) SA 171
(W) at 177.
[10]
Christie,
supra,
at 512, ftn 81, and Bikitsha v Eastern Cape Development Board
1988
(3) SA 522
(E) at 527 J – 528 A.
[11]
Christie,
supra,
at 548 and Pretorius
v Greyling,
1947 (1) SA 171
(W) at 177.
[12]
Goosen v Van Zyl
1980 (1) SA 707
(O);  Xatula v Min of Police, Transkei 1993(4) SA 244 (Tk GD).
[13]
Ras v Liquor Licensing Board,
supra,
at 237 G – H.
[14]
Ras v Liquor Licensing Board,
supra,
at 527 I – 528 C.
[15]
1988 (3) SA 522
(E) at 527 J –
528 C.
[16]
1966 (2) SA 232
(CPD) at 237 E - F.
[17]
The facts in the present case differ
from those in Dhlamini v Minister of Law and Order and Another
1986
(4) SA 342
(D) and (CLD) in which the court found that counsel who
had been properly instructed by the State Attorney would have the
implied
authority to bind the Respondent to the settlement concluded
in that here there was only an advice by counsel to the attorney for

the Respondent to consider and there was no instruction or agreement
or settlement not to oppose.
[18]
[2012] 1 All SA 465
SCA
[19]
[2008] ZASCA 34
;
2008 (4) SA 312
(SCA) at par
[6]
at
315.
[20]
In Madinda v Minister of Safety and
Security,
supra,
at
par [8] at 316  the Supreme Court of Appeal held that  “
the
standard of proof is not on a balance of probabilities but rather an
overall impression made on the court which brings a fair
mind to the
facts set up by the parties”.
[21]
2010 (4) SA 109
(SCA) at 113.
[22]
See also Minister of Safety and
Security v De Witt
[2008] ZASCA 103
;
2009 (1) SA 457
(SCA) at para
[5]
, [11] and [13]
at 460 D – F; 462 B – C and 462 F.
[23]
Supra,
at
para [14].
[24]
2016 (4) SA 414 (CC)
[25]
[2006] ZASCA 16
;
2006 (4) SA 168
(SCA) n7 at para [16]
[26]
Supra,
at
para [31] at 425.
[27]
Id
para
[17]
[28]
Id.
[29]
Loubser
Extinctive
Prescription
1996 at 80 –
81, para 4.6.2
[30]
Supra,
at
par [12] at 317.
[31]
Madinda v Minister of Safety and
Security,
supra,
at
par [10] at 316
[32]
Premier Western Cape,
supra,
at para [17]at 475.
[33]
1954 (2) SA 345
(A) at 352 H –
353 A.
[34]
Madinda v Minister of Safety and
Security,
supra,
at
par [11] at 316
[35]
2012 (5) SA 313
(SCA) at para [15] at
320
[36]
Links,
supra
, at para [47].
[37]
Links,
supra,
at para [48] at 429.
[38]
At para [36] at 426.
[39]
Supra,
at
para [35] at 117.
[40]
Supra,
at
para [17] at 12.
[41]
In
Links
at para [42] at 428
[42]
Id
[43]
Minister of Finance and Others v Gore
NO 2007 (1) SA 111 (SCA).
[44]
Lee,
supra,
at n39 para 39.
[45]
Links
,
supra,
at
para [45] at 429.
[46]
2017 (1) SA 274
(GJ) at para [51] at
286
[47]
Id
para
[18].
[48]
2016 (4) SA 414
(CC) at par [19] at
421
[49]
Supra,
at
para [19] at 476.
[50]
Supra,
at para 21 at 320 I - J
[51]
2012 (2) SA 1
(SCA) at para [25]