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[2019] ZAMPMBHC 11
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M M v Road Accident Fund (25/11/2019) [2019] ZAMPMBHC 11; Roelofse AJ (4 December 2019)
SAFLII Note:
Certain
personal/private details of parties or witnesses have been
redacted from this document in compliance with the law
and
SAFLII
Policy
REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA,
MPUMALANGA DIVISION, MBOMBELA
(MAIN
SEAT)
CASE
NO:
718/2016
In
the matter between:
M
M
Plaintiff
and
ROAD
ACCIDENT
FUND
Defendant
JUDGMENT
Roelofse
AJ:
[1]
The defendant wants to withdraw from a
compromise reached between it and the plaintiff. The plaintiff wants
the defendant to remain
bound by the compromise. Is the defendant
entitled to resile from the compromise?
[1]
This is what I have to decide.
[2]
On 15 July 2012, along the Halfway Trust
Main Road Kabokweni, Mpumalanga, a pedestrian, Mr M M (“
Mr.
M
”), met with a tragedy when he was hit
by a motor vehicle. Mr. M was a major when the incident occurred.
[2]
[3]
Mr. M allegedly, suffered a severe head
injury resulting in neuro-cognitive defects and neuro-behavioural
defects, an injury to
his left orbital and multiple abrasions.
Allegedly, as a result of the injuries, Mr. M underwent
hospitalisation, received medical
treatment, is disabled and
disfigured and is suffering from pain and a loss of amenities of
life.
[3]
[4]
Mr. M is entitled to claim compensation
from the Road Accident Fund (“
the
Fund”
). The Fund was established in
terms of section 2 of the Road Accident Fund Act (“
the
Act”
)
[4]
for the payment of compensation in accordance with the Act for loss
or damage wrongfully caused by the driving of motor vehicles.
[5]
[5]
Section 17 of the Act differentiates
between loss caused where the identity of the owner or driver of the
motor vehicle has been
established and where their identities were
not established (“
hit-and-run
cases”
).
[6]
[6]
The identity of neither the driver nor the owner of the
vehicle that hit Mr. M was established. Mr. M’ claim is
therefore
one under section 17(1)(b) of the Act.
[7]
The Minister
[7]
is empowered to make regulations regarding any matter that is or may
be prescribed in terms of the Act or which it is necessary
or
expedient to prescribe in order to achieve or promote the object of
the Act.
[8]
The Minister made the
Road Accident Fund Regulations.
[9]
Regulation 2 provides for liability of the Fund in hit-and-run cases.
Regulation 2 provides as follows:
“
Further provision for liability of Fund in
terms of section 17 (1) (b):
(1)(a) A claim for compensation referred to in
section 17 (1) (b) of the Act shall be sent or delivered to the Fund
in accordance
with the provisions of section 24 of the Act, within
two years from the date upon which the cause of action arose.
(b) A right to claim compensation from the Fund under
section 17 (1) (b) of the Act in respect of loss or damage arising
from the
driving of a motor vehicle in the case where the identity of
neither the owner nor the driver thereof has been established, shall
become prescribed upon the expiry of a period of two years from the
date upon which the cause of action arose, unless a claim has
been
lodged in terms of paragraph (a).
(c) In the event of a claim having been lodged in
terms of paragraph (a) such claim shall not prescribe before the
expiry of a period
of five years from the date upon which the cause
of action arose.
(2) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary
contained in any law a claim for compensation referred to in section
17 (1) (b) of
the Act shall be sent or delivered to the Fund within
two years from the date upon which the cause of action arose
irrespective
of any legal disability to which the third party
concerned may be subject.
[8]
The effect of Regulation 2 is that, in
hit-and-run cases, the right to claim compensation from the Fund
prescribes within two years
of the accident
[10]
irrespective of any legal disability which the accident victim
concerned may be subject to.
[11]
From the time the claim is lodged with the Fund, the claim shall not
prescribe before the expiry of a period of five years from
the date
of the accident.
[9]
On 28 June 2016, Mr. M’s mother, Ms. L Sindi M (“
Ms.
M
”), issued summons commencing action out of this court
against the Fund. The Fund was served with the summons on 6 July
2016.
[10]
In the particulars of claim it is
mistakenly alleged that Mr. M was born on 20 June 1996.
[12]
This would have made Mr. M 16 years old at the time of the accident
and 20 years old when the action was instituted. Therefore,
on both
Mr. M’s correct and incorrect date of birth, Mr. M was major
when the action was instituted. Mr. M therefore had
the requisite
legal standing to institute the action. Despite this, Ms. M alleges
in the particulars of claim that the institutes
the action in her “…
representative capacity on behalf of her
child
”.
[13]
In the answering affidavit, Ms. M alleges that she has assisted Mr. M
to lodge a claim with the Fund because “….
he
[Mr. M]
is no longer
mentally stable, as a result of the injuries he sustained in the
accident…..
”.
[11]
To have lodged the claim with the Fund is
one thing – to have instituted the action is another. Even if
Mr. M’s injuries
were of such a nature that he could not act on
his own behalf, Ms. M has no standing in the matter merely by virtue
of being Mr.
M’s mother.
[14]
Despite this, the Fund did not challenge Ms. M’s standing and,
as the proceedings progressed, it appears that Mr. M was regarded
by
the parties as the plaintiff.
[15]
In my view, the manner in which the proceedings was instituted first
by Ms. M and apparently later proceeded with by Mr. M, may
have
contributed significantly to the current dispute.
[12]
Ms. M alleges in the particulars of claim
that the plaintiff duly complied with the provisions of section 24 of
the Act before the
institution of the proceedings.
[16]
[13]
From the papers there is a material dispute of fact over
whether there was indeed compliance with the provisions of section 24
of
the Act.
[14]
Ms. M alleges that Mr. M’s claim was
lodged on 30 September 2012 when she attended to the Fund’s
offices in Mbombela.
There she allegedly signed forms. Ms. M alleges
that she was thereafter not contacted by the Fund as she expected
would happen.
[17]
Ms. M
alleges that she consulted her present attorneys on 9 November 2015
after there was no contact from the Fund. Ms. M states
that her
attorneys submitted the RAF1
[18]
claim form with the Fund on 17 November 2015. In addition, Ms. M
attaches what she regards as documentary proof that the claim
was
lodged in September 2012.
[15]
The Fund says that Mr. M’s claim was
lodged on 17 November 2015, i.e. the date upon which Ms. M’s
attorneys lodged the
claim. The Fund denies that the claim was lodged
in September 2012. The Fund repudiated the claim on 4 December
2014.
[19]
[16]
I am unable to resolve the dispute over the date of the
lodgement of the claim with the Fund on the papers. It is a matter
rather
to be dealt with after hearing oral evidence. In addition, it
is not necessary for me to make a finding in this regard in light
of
the conclusion that I reach regarding the Fund’s wish to resile
from the compromise.
[17]
Mr. M’s matter was assigned to Ms. Shirindza Mmakoma
(“
Ms. Mmakoma
”). Ms. Mmakoma is a claims handler
at the Fund.
[18]
On 7 December 2017, Ms. Mmakoma received an e-mail from the
Fund’s attorneys. They requested the Fund to make an offer to
settle the “
merits
”. Ms. Mmakoma says that when
she obtained the file and perused it, she mainly had regard to the
particulars of claim. Ms.
Mmakoma says that she observed that the “…
plaintiff was a minor and that the insured driver was
unidentified
” …
Due to the plaintiff’s
alleged minority status in the particulars of claim, I was not
concerned with prescription
. This observation was wrong both in
law and in fact. Mr. M’s claim would have been prescribed, even
if, at that stage, Ms.
Mmakoma had regard to the error in Mr. M’s
date of birth in the particulars of claim by virtue of the provisions
of Regulation
2.
[19]
The next step Ms. Mmakoma says she took
was to consider whether the fund had a version to rebut the
plaintiff’s version and
concluded that, since the insured
driver was unknown, the fund would not be able to rebut the Mrs. M’s
version.
[20]
Ms. Mmakoma, as a
result, conceded liability on behalf of the Fund and communicated her
decision to the fund’s attorneys
on the same date.
[20]
If Ms. Mmakoma had properly considered the particulars of
claim having regard to the provisions of Regulation 2, she should not
have given instructions to the Fund’s attorneys to settle. She
made a mistake. Was this mistake reasonable? I shall deal with
this
question hereunder.
[21]
On 8 December 2017, and in accordance with
the practice in this Division, the matter came before Her Ladyship
Ms. Justice Mphahlele
for a judicial pre-trial conference to be held.
In the pre-trial minutes and directives (“
the
directives
”), it was recorded by the
parties that merits were settled.
[21]
[22]
On 16 January 2018, the Fund’s attorneys delivered an
offer of settlement in terms of the provisions of Rules 34(1) and (5)
of the Uniform Rules to Mrs. M’s attorneys. The offer of
settlement
, inter alia
, records as follows:
“
KINDLY TAKE NOTICE THAT
without
prejudice or admission of liability and by way of an offer in full
and final settlement of the Plaintiff’s claim,
the Defendant
hereby offers the following:
MERITS
100% Concession in favour of Plaintiff.”
The
Fund also tendered, in the event of the offer of settlement being
accepted by Ms. M, to pay Ms. M’s taxed costs on High
Court
scale as between party and party, to the date of service of the
notice.
[23]
On 17 January 2018, Ms. M’s attorneys accepted the offer
by delivering a notice to that effect to the fund’s attorneys.
The compromise was reached.
[24]
On 7 August 2018, a case management was held before His
Lordship Mr. Justice Legodi JP. A case management directive was
issued.
The matter was enrolled for the trial week of 26 August 2019
on merits as well as quantum despite the previous pre-trial minutes
and directives recording that the merits have been settled. It is
recorded in manuscript under paragraph 9 of the directive as
follows:
“
The plaintiff will serve and file his
replication to the defendant’s special plea on the [sic] 11
December 2018.”
In
paragraph 10, also in manuscript, the following is recorded:
“
The plaintiff will also subsequently serve and
file his notice to amend the particulars of claim on the 23 [sic]
November 2018.”
These recordals were made by the parties despite the
compromise and the parties’ agreement at the pre-trial
conference on
8 December 2017 that the merits were settled.
[25]
On 1 November 2018, the Fund’s attorneys delivered a
notice of intention to amend its plea. In the notice of amendment,
the
Fund raised 2 special pleas. In paragraph 2 of the notice of
intention to amend under the heading, “
FIRST SPECIAL
PLEA
”, the Fund records as follows:
“
AD NON-COMPLIANCE
Plaintiff failed to exhaust the process and remedies
available to him in that plaintiff failed to lodge a claim with or
submit his
claim to the defendant within 2 (two) years from date upon
which the claim arose as required by Regulation 2(3) of the Act. The
plaintiff has thus failed to comply with Regulations 2(3) of the RAF
Act as amended.”
The
Fund sought to raise the issue of prescription of Mr. M’s claim
for the first time.
[26]
On 17 November 2018, Mrs. M delivered a
notice of objection to the Fund’s Attorneys. The notice
objected to the Fund’s
notice of intention to amend its
plea.
[22]
The objection did
not squarely raise the issue of the compromise.
[27]
On 12 November 2018, the Fund delivered
its special plea. In the special plea, the Fund raises the issue of
prescription of the
claim.
[23]
[28]
On 14 December 2018, Mr. M’s
attorneys delivered a notice in terms of Rule 30(1). The notice
sought to set aside the filing
of the Fund’s special plea.
[24]
The notice raises the issue of the compromise.
[29]
On 23 November 2018, Mr. M’s attorneys delivered a
notice in terms of Rule 30(2)(b). The Rule 30(2)(b) notice raised an
issue
that the fund proceeded to effect an amendment of its plea by
delivering its special plea of prescription on 12 November 2018
without
authorised by the court to do so upon application in terms of
Rule 28(4).
[30]
The Rule 30 application was ultimately set down on the
unopposed motion roll. On 17 July 2019, the Fund delivered to Mr. M’s
attorneys a notice withdrawing its special plea.
[31]
On 23 July 2019, the Fund delivered a notice further notice of
its intention to amend its plea. The amendment seeks to raise the
issue of Mr. M’s failure to lodge his claim within the
prescribed two-year period and presicription.
[32]
On 1 August 2019, Mr. M delivered a notice
of objection to the Fund’s notice of amendment.
[25]
The objection raises the issues of the compromise and
res
judicata
.
[33]
On 26 August 2019, a civil trial case management directive was
issued by Her Ladyship Ms. Kgoele J. In terms of this directive, the
matter was enrolled for the trial week of 24 March 2020 on quantum
only. In paragraph 2.2 of the directive, it is recorded that
the
defendant intends to bring an application for leave to amend its
plea. Such application to be heard/enrolled on the opposed
roll of 29
October 2019.
[34]
In paragraphs 9 to 11 of the pre-trial directive, in
manuscript, it was recorded as follows:
“
9. The defendant to file its application for
leave to amend on or before the 10
th
September 2019. The plaintiff to [sic] its answering affidavit on or
before the 20
th
September 2019. The
defendant to file its answering affidavit if so advised, and its
heads of arguments [sic] on or before 2
nd
of
October 2019. The plaintiff to file its heads of argument on or
before 8
th
October 2019.10.30.
10. Defendant is ordered to pay the costs occasioned
by the postponement on a punitive scale on an attorney and client
scale [sic].
11. The defendant’s attorney is ordered to file
an affidavit in terms of paragraphs 7.1 and 7.2 of this form on or
before
the 12
th
September 2019.”
Yet
again, this was acceded to despite the compromise and the parties’
agreement at the pre-trial conference on 8 December
2017 that the
merits were settled. Therefore, at that stage, any settlement was off
the table as if the parties were oblivious
of the compromise and that
the matter was enrolled on quantum only.
[35]
The Fund launched this application on 15 October 2019. The
Fund seeks the following relief:
“
a) The applicant/defendant is granted leave to
withdraw from the agreement it entered into with the
respondent/plaintiff conceding
merits;
b) The applicant/defendant is granted leave to amend
its plea in accordance with defendant’s notice of intention to
amend;
c) The applicant/defendant is to deliver its amended
pages within 5 days of the granting of this order;
d) Condonation of non-compliance with the Uniform of
Rules of Court; and
e) Further and/or alternative relief.”
[36]
Obviously, only in the event the Fund is granted leave to
resile from the compromise will the issue of granting leave to the
Fund
to amend its plea arise.
[37]
Can the Fund resile from the compromise? I proceed to deal
with this question.
[38]
A compromise is a
transactio
,
the nature of which is an agreement between two or more persons to
end litigation or to prevent litigation resulting from the
difference
between them. In
Gollach & Comperts (1967)
(Pty) Ltd v Universal Mills & Produce Co (Pty) Ltd and Others
,
[26]
Miller JA, says the
following:
“
The purpose of a transactio is not only to put
an end to existing litigation but also to prevent or avoid
litigation. This is very
clearly stated by Domat, Civil Law, vol. 1,
para. 1078, in a passage quoted in Estate Erasmus v Church,
1927
T.P.D. 20
at p. 24, but which bears repetition:
"A transaction is an agreement between two or
more persons, who, for preventing or ending a law suit, adjust their
differences
by mutual consent, in the manner which they agree on; and
which every one of them prefers to the hopes of gaining, joined
with the danger of losing.
A compromise is closely
equivalent to a consent judgment and has the effect of
res
judicata
.”
[39]
A compromise has the effect of
res
judicata
and may be set aside on account of
fraud or a mistake provided the mistake constitutes a
justus
error
.
[27]
[40]
The Fund relies on Ms. Mmakoma’s mistake not to properly
consider the issue of prescription of Ms. M’s claim before she
instructed the Fund’s attorneys to settle the matter.
[41]
In her affidavit, Ms. Mmakoma acknowledges that, prior to
withdrawing from the compromise, she has to obtain the court’s
leave
after satisfying the court that the agreement came about by
mistake; that the mistake was not the Fund’s fault; and that
the mistake was reasonable. Ms. Mmakoma, says that she made a
material mistake and that she would not have made the offer if it
was
known to her that the claim had been repudiated before it had
prescribed and that she heavily relied on the particulars of
claim
for her decision to make the offer. The Fund relies on a unilateral
mistake.
[42]
In our law, a party may resile from a
contract entered into under certain circumstances. If there is no
misrepresentation by the
other party, the scope for a party wishing
to resile from a contract on the ground of a unilateral mistake is
narrow. Such a party
has to plead that he mistake was reasonable
(
justus
).
[28]
[43]
In the case of an unilateral error “…
.the
decisive question in a case like the present is this: did the party
whose actual intention did not conform to the common intention
expressed, lead the other party, as a reasonable man, to believe that
his declared intention represented his actual intention?
. . . To
answer this question, a three-fold enquiry is usually necessary,
namely, firstly, was there a misrepresentation as to
one party's
intention; secondly, who made that representation; and thirdly, was
the other party misled thereby? . . . The last
question postulates
two possibilities: Was he actually misled and would reasonable man
have been misled?”
[29]
[44]
I turn to the facts in order to determine whether Ms.
Mmakoma’s mistake was reasonable.
[45]
In paragraph 19.2 of her affidavit, Ms. Mmakoma alleges as
follows:
“
Had I known that the plaintiff was not a
minor, I would have been more vigilant regarding prescription but for
the incorrect information
on the particulars of claim I was
blind-sighted. I had no reason to question the particulars of claim
at the time.”
[46]
This allegation must be seen in against the context of with
what of what Ms. Mmakoma says in paragraph 11.4 of her affidavit (and
which is common cause):
“
On the 17
th
of June
2018, the plaintiff sought to amend its particulars of claim by
deleting paragraph 1 of its particulars of claim and its
entirety and
stating that its date of birth was 20 June 1993. The defendant did
not object to this amendment and therefore the
plaintiff effected the
amendment by delivering the amended pages.”
[47]
In respect of fault, Ms. Mmakoma says as
follows:
[30]
“
I submit that the mistake I made was not the
defendant’s fault, but the mistake I made because of the
particulars of claim
that contained incorrect information.”
[48]
The amendment whereby Mr. M’s date
of birth was amended to three years earlier
[31]
was effected after the compromise. Even with Mr. M’s incorrect
date of birth, Mr. M’s claim would have prescribed by
virtue of
the provisions of Regulation 2.
[49]
Ms. Mmakoma also says as follows in paragraph 30 of the
founding affidavit:
“
I have stated above that due to the urgency of
the matter and that the matter was already before the courts and
wanting to expedite
the matter I relied heavily on the summons and
particulars of claim together with the executive summary from TMC.”
[50]
In paragraph 23 of the replying affidavit, Ms. Mmakoma states
as follows:
“
I deny that I was negligent and that there was
dereliction of duty on my part as stated in paragraph 8 of the
answering affidavit.
I have already stated that the particulars of
claim caused me to commit a reasonable mistake.”
[51]
With regards to the reasonableness of the
mistake, Ms. Mmakoma records as follows:
[32]
“
I submit that given the circumstances of this
matter the mistake was reasonable and that any reasonable person
confronted by this
situation would have made the same mistake more so
because the particulars of claim made it clear that the plaintiff was
a minor
and as such is trite that prescription does not run against
minors.”
[52]
Ms. M alleges that Ms. Mmakoma’s
conduct in restricting herself to the particulars of claim when
making the decision to settle
the merits, was negligent and amounted
to a dereliction of her duties.
[33]
Ms. M further alleges that the fund fails to meet the requirement of
justus error
as it
seeks to rely on unilateral, unreasonable and negligent mistake which
cannot be justified.
[53]
Ms. M admits that Ms. Mmakoma made a
mistake but alleges that her mistake can at the very least, be
described as grossly negligent
which is not one of the grounds for
setting aside a compromise.
[34]
[54]
I agree with Ms. M. Ms. Mmakoma was negligent in instructing
the Fund’s attorneys to enter into the compromise. The error
was therefore not reasonable. The Fund has not cleared to threshold
for it to resile from the compromise.
[55]
The last thing I must to say is that, in
my view, the provisions of Regulation 2(2) may be unconstitutional
insofar as it includes
persons suffering from a legal disability for
whom it is impossible to comply with the prescripts of Regulation 2.
Camron JA, in
Geldenhuys & Joubert
supra,
[35]
said as follows:
“
Although the test for invalidity is objective,
I should point out that the minor children in the present case had
the plaintiff
as their guardian. On the facts she pleaded, she was
able to and indeed tried to comply with the two-year period in her
own and
their behalf, but was thwarted by the attorneys’
culpable conduct. We were not asked to determine either the
application
or the validity of the regulation where the interests of
a minor claimant are not so protected (as for instance when a minor
has
no guardian). I express no view on such a case, where different
considerations may apply (see Gassner NO v Minister of Law and
Order).
[56]
In my view, Regulation 2, insofar as it includes persons
suffering from a legal disability for whom it is impossible to comply
with
the prescripts of Regulation 2, is at odds with sections 9, 12
and 34 of the Bill of Rights - it is simply wrong. It is a sad
reality
that in our society there are many vulnerable persons such as
households headed by children and must be many mentally ill persons
(who are not formally institutionalized) for whom it may simply be
impossible to comply with the prescripts of Regulation 2.
[57]
I called upon the parties to make representations on the
constitutionality of Regulation 2 insofar as it relates to persons
under
a legal disability for whom it is impossible to comply with its
prescripts. They did so for which the court is indebted to them.
The
plaintiff submitted that Regulation 2 is unconstitutional - the Fund
submitted that I am barred from deciding the issue.
[58]
A declaration of unconstitutionality of Regulation 2 was not
before me and was not pleaded. In addition, the Minister is not party
to the proceedings and, in any event, Mr. M (even if it is accepted
that he suffers from a legal disability), was fortunate enough
to be
assisted by his mother. It is not difficult to appreciate that many
of the most vulnerable members of our society do not
have a similar
benefit. For this reason, I hope that a proper opportunity to
challenge to the constitutionality of Regulation 2
in this regard
will soon arise.
Order:
1. The application is dismissed.
2. The defendant shall pay the plaintiff’s costs.
Roelofse AJ
Acting Judge of the High Court
DATE
OF HEARING: 29 October 2019
DATE
OF JUDGMENT: 25 November 2019
APPEARANCES
FOR
THE APPLICANT/
DEFENDANT:
Mr Ngwenya
INTSTRUCTED
BY: TM Chauke Incorporated
FOR
THE PLAINTIFF/
RESPONDENT:
Mr RB Mphela and MS. Netshiozwi
INSTRUCTED
BY: QQ Mkhatshwa Attorneys
[1]
Although this matter comes
before me as an application, I shall refer to the parties as they
are referred to in the action proceedings.
[2]
Mr. Manzini was born on […].
In terms of Section 17 of the Children’s Act No. 38 of 2005,
the age of majority is
18. The Children’s Act came into
operation on 1 July 2007.
[3]
As will appear from what is
set out below, this remains in dispute.
[4]
Act No. 56 of 1996.
[5]
The objects of the Fund in terms of
Section
3 of the Act.
[6]
Section 17 of the Act, in
relevant part, provides as follows:
“
17. Liability of Fund and
agents.—(1) The Fund or an agent shall—
(a) subject to this Act, in the case of a claim for
compensation under this section arising from the driving of a motor
vehicle
where the identity of the owner or the driver thereof has
been established;
(b) subject to any regulation made under section 26,
in the case of a claim for compensation under this section arising
from the
driving of a motor vehicle where the identity of neither
the owner nor the driver thereof has been established,
be obliged to compensate any person (the third
party) for any loss or damage which the third party has suffered as
a result of
any bodily injury to himself or herself or the death of
or any bodily injury to any other person, caused by or arising from
the
driving of a motor vehicle by any person at any place within the
Republic, if the injury or death is due to the negligence or other
wrongful act of the driver or of the owner of the motor vehicle or
of his or her employee in the performance of the employee’s
duties as employee:…..”
[7]
Minister of Transport –
section 1 of the Act.
[8]
Section 26(1) of the Act.
[9]
Regulation GNR.770 of 21 July 2008 (Government Gazette No. 31249) as
amended. The amendment was published as Notice R.347 in
Government
Gazette 36452 on 5 May 2013.
[10]
The cause of action arises
generally when the accident occurs – see:
Road
Accident Fund and Another v Mdeyide
2011 (2) SA 26
(CC), at paragraph 52.
[11]
In respect of other
accidents, the period of prescription is three years and, in respect
of persons under legal disability, such
as minors, mental patients
and persons under curatorship, prescription is stayed –
section 23 of the Act.
[12]
Paragraph 1.1 of the
particulars of claim.
[13]
Paragraph 1 of the particulars of claim.
[14]
See:
Madalane
v Van Wyk (87/2015)
[2016] ZASCA 25
(18 March 2016).
[15]
I could find no formal
substitution of Ms. Manzini as plaintiff with Mr. Manzini.
[16]
Paragraph 10 of the
particulars of claim. Section 24 of the Act provides as follows:
“
24. Procedure.—(1)
A claim for compensation and accompanying medical report under
section 17 (1) shall—
(a) be set out in the prescribed form, which shall
be completed in all its particulars;
(b) be sent by registered post or delivered by hand
to the Fund at its principal, branch or regional office, or to the
agent who
in terms of section 8 must handle the claim, at the
agent’s registered office or local branch office, and the Fund
or such
agent shall at the time of delivery by hand acknowledge
receipt thereof and the date of such receipt in writing.
(2) (a) The medical report shall be completed on the
prescribed form by the medical practitioner who treated the deceased
or injured
person for the bodily injuries sustained in the accident
from which the claim arises, or by the superintendent (or his or her
representative) of the hospital where the deceased or injured person
was treated for such bodily injuries: Provided that, if the
medical
practitioner or superintendent (or his or her representative)
concerned fails to complete the medical report on request
within a
reasonable time and it appears that as a result of the passage of
time the claim concerned may become prescribed, the
medical report
may be completed by another medical practitioner who has fully
satisfied himself or herself regarding the cause
of the death or the
nature and treatment of the bodily injuries in respect of which the
claim is made.
(b) Where a person is killed outright in a
motor vehicle accident the completion of the medical report shall
not be a requirement,
but in such a case the form referred to in
subsection (1) (a) shall be accompanied by documentary proof, such
as a copy of the
relevant inquest record or, in the case of a
prosecution of the person who allegedly caused the deceased’s
death, a copy
of the relevant charge sheet from which it can clearly
be determined that such person’s death resulted from the
accident
to which the claim relates.
(3) A claim by a supplier for the payment of
expenses in terms of section 17 (5) shall be in the prescribed form,
and the provisions
of this section shall apply mutatis mutandis in
respect of the completion of such form.
(4) (a) Any form referred to in this section which
is not completed in all its particulars shall not be acceptable as a
claim
under this Act.
(b) A clear reply shall be given to each question
contained in the form referred to in subsection (1), and if a
question is not
applicable, the words “not applicable”
shall be inserted.
(c) A form on which ticks, dashes, deletions and
alterations have been made that are not confirmed by a signature
shall not be
regarded as properly completed.
(d) Precise details shall be given in respect of
each item under the heading “Compensation claimed” and
shall, where
applicable, be accompanied by supporting vouchers.
(5) If the Fund or the agent does not, within 60
days from the date on which a claim was sent by registered post or
delivered
by hand to the Fund or such agent as contemplated in
subsection (1), object to the validity thereof, the claim shall be
deemed
to be valid in law in all respects.
(6) No claim shall be enforceable by legal
proceedings commenced by a summons served on the Fund or an agent—
(a) before the expiry of a period of 120 days from
the date on which the claim was sent or delivered by hand to the
Fund or the
agent as contemplated in subsection (1); and
(b) before all requirements contemplated in section
19 ( f ) have been complied with:
Provided that if the Fund or the agent repudiates in
writing liability for the claim before the expiry of the said
period, the
third party may at any time after such repudiation serve
summons on the Fund or the agent, as the case may be.”
[17]
Paragraphs 2.5 and 2.10 of
the answering affidavit.
[18]
The form prescribed for the
lodgment of a claim with the Fund.
[19]
T
he Fund’s Registration
Report – annexure “SM1” to the founding affidavit.
[20]
Ms. Mmakoma refers to Mr.
Manzini being the plaintiff. At the time Ms. Mmakoma perused and
considered the particulars of claim,
Ms. Manzini was the plaintiff.
[21]
Paragraph 2.2 of the directives.
[22]
“
- Matter is ready certified trial
ready for 12 November 2018
-
The
defendant had already served an offer of settlement on the merits
(concession of liability) 100%.
-The notice is short served.”
[23]
The Fund pleaded as follows:
“
1. The Plaintiff is suing the Defendant for
damages arising out of a motor vehicle in as envisaged [sic] by
Section 17
of the
Road Accident Fund Act, 1996
.
1.1. The Plaintiff that he was involved in a motor
vehicle accident on 15th of July 2012.
1.2. The Plaintiff further alleged that [sic]
vehicle and the driver of the vehicle is unknown to him.
2. The Plaintiff lodge [sic] the claim with the
Defendant by submitting RAF1 Form on 17 November 2015.
2.1. The Plaintiff was required by the
Road Accident
Fund Act, Regulation
2 to lodge the claim within two years of the
date of the accident.
2.2. In this respect the Plaintiff was required to
lodge the claim on or before 14 July 2014.
2.3. In the premise the plaintiff [sic] claim has
prescribed [sic] and is unenforceable against the Defendant.”
[24]
The main thrust of the notice of application in terms of
Rule 30(1)
is that:
“
2. The Applicant [plaintiff] objected to the
proposed amendment on the 07
th
of November
2018, on the grounds that the proposed amendment seeks to re-open an
issue of liability which was settled between
the parties and that
the matter was already certified trial ready and is set down on the
trial roll of 12th of November 2018,
for the determination of
quantum of the Plaintiff’s claim only.’
[25]
The notice of objection records as follows:
“
KINDLY FURTHER TAKE notice that the basis of
the plaintiff’s objections are:
1. The proposed amendment is way out of time as it
was raised for the first time after the Defendant conceded liability
in favour
of the Plaintiff, when the matter was set down for the
determination of quantum.
2. The proposed amendment is not bona fide and seeks
to delay the finalisation of the Plaintiff’s claim, because
the same
amendment was proposed at the previous hearing and
subsequently withdrawn by Defendant.
3. The proposed amendment seeks to re-open the issue
of liability which was settled by way of compromise/agreement
between the
parties.
4. The Plaintiff will be prejudiced by the proposed
amendment on the aforementioned grounds.”
[26]
1978 (1) SA 914
(A) at 921
B-D
[27]
See: Gollach
supra,
at 922 C-D where
it is said as follows:
“
A transactio, whether
extra-judicial or embodied in an order of Court, has the effect of
res judicata. (See Western Assurance
Co. v Caldwell's Trustee,
1918
AD 262
at p. 270; Van Zyl v Niemann,
1964 (4) SA 661
(AD) at p.
669H, read with p. 668D; Cachalia's case, supra at p. 464; Estate
Erasmus v Church, supra at p. 28.) It is obvious
that, like any
other contract (and like any order of Court), a transactio may be
set aside on the ground that it was fraudulently
obtained. There is
authority to the effect that it may also be set aside on the ground
of mistake, where the error is justus.
[28]
See:
National
and Overseas Distributors Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Potato Board
1958
(2) SA 473
(A)
at
479F-H
where the following was said:
“
Our law allows a party to
set up his own mistake in certain circumstances in order to escape
liability under a contract into which
he has entered. But where the
other party has not made any misrepresentation and has not
appreciated at the time of acceptance
that his offer was being
accepted under a misapprehension, the scope for a defence of
unilateral mistake is very narrow, if it
exists at all. At least the
mistake (error) would have to be reasonable (justus) and it would
have to be pleaded.”
[29]
See:
Sonap
Petroleum (SA) (Pty) Ltd v Pappadogiani
s
1992
(3) SA 234 (A) at 239I-240B.
[30]
Paragraph 21 of the founding affidavit.
[31]
1996 to 1993.
[32]
In paragraph 23 of the
founding affidavit.
[33]
Paragraph 8 of the answering affidavit.
[34]
Paragraph 10.1 of the answering affidavit.
[35]
At paragraph 29.