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[2023] ZAFSHC 306
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S v Thabethe and Others (Appeal) (08/2022) [2023] ZAFSHC 306 (3 August 2023)
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Certain
personal/private details of parties or witnesses have been
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IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
FREE
STATE DIVISION, BLOEMFONTEIN
Case No. 08/2022
REPORTABLE: YES/NO
OF
INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: YES/NO
CIRCULATE
TO MAGISTRATES: YES/NO
In
the matter between:
THE
STATE
APPLICANT
and
MBANA
PETER THABETHE
1
ST
RESPONDENT
LIMAKATSO
MOOROSI
2
ND
RESPONDENT
SEIPATI
SILVIA DHLAMINI
3
RD
RESPONDENT
IQBAL
MEER SHARMA
4
TH
RESPONDENT
NULANE
INVESTMENTS 204 (PTY) LTD
5
TH
RESPONDENT
(Represented
by the 4
th
Respondent)
DINESH
PATEL
6
TH
RESPONDENT
ISLANDSITE
INVESTMENT ONE HUNDRED
7
TH
RESPONDENT
AND
EIGHTY (PTY) LTD
(Represented
by the 8
th
Respondent)
RONICA
RAGAVAN
8
TH
RESPONDENT
CORAM
:
GUSHA, AJ
HEARD
ON:
28 JULY 2023
DELIVERED
ON
: This judgment was delivered
electronically by circulation to the parties’ representatives
by way of email
and by release to SAFLII. The date and time for
delivery is deemed to be at 15h00 on 03 AUGUST 2023.
JUDGMENT
INTRODUCTION
[1]
The respondents were arraigned in this court as follows;
Count 1: Accused 1 and 2
only.
The State alleges that
the accused are guilty of contravening section 86(1) of the Public
Finance Management Act (PFMA), Act 1 of
1999, read with the
provisions of sections 1, 36, 38, 39, 44(2) and 76 (4)(c) of the Act,
and further read with the provisions
of section 217 (1) of the
Constitution. In respect of this count the State conceded that the
evidence against accused 1 fell short
of the required threshold and
accordingly the application for the discharge of accused 1 in respect
of count 1 should succeed.
Accordingly, I shall not take this any
further than I have.
Count 2: Accused 1-8.
The State alleges that
all the accused unlawfully and intentionally and with common purpose
committed fraud.
Count 3: Accused 4, 5, 7
and 8 only.
It is alleged that they
are guilty of contravening the provisions of section 4 read with the
provisions of sections 1, 8(1) of Act
121 of 1998 and further read
with the provisions of section 51(2) of the criminal law amendment
act 105 of 1997.
Count 4: Accused 4, 5, 7
and 8.
It is alleged that they
are guilty of contravening the provisions of section 4 read with the
provisions of sections 1, 8 (1) of
Act 121 of 1998 and further read
with the provisions of section 51(2) of the criminal law amendment
act 105 of 1997.
[2]
Subsequent to an involved trial spanning 6 weeks
[1]
,
all the respondents save for the 2
nd
,
were found not guilty and discharged in terms of section 174 of the
Criminal Procedure Act, 51 of 1977 (the Act).
[3]
The 2
nd
respondent elected to close her case without
testifying and thereby exercised her right to remain silent. As the
court was not
satisfied that the applicant passed muster of the
onus
,
she was acquitted on both counts preferred against her.
CHRONOLOGY
OF EVENTS SUBSEQUENT THE 21
ST
APRIL JUDGMENT
[4]
For reasons which shall become apparent elsewhere in this judgment, I
deem it apposite to briefly
set out the chronology of events post the
aforesaid judgment.
[5]
Aggrieved by the judgment (the 21
st
April 2023
judgment), the applicant on the 8
th
May 2023 lodged an
application for leave to appeal.
[2]
The 23
rd
June 2023 was
allocated for hearing. The applicant and counsel for the 7
th
and 8
th
respondents
confirmed their availability
[3]
.
Subsequent to this, all the remaining respondents filed their notices
to oppose and advised that the agreed upon date was not
suitable. On
the 12
th
June 2023, I
directed my erstwhile registrar to contact all the parties and advise
them of same. On the same day, he sent an electronic
mail to all the
parties in the following terms;
Greetings,
The honorable Judge
has noted the unavailability of other legal representatives for the
23 June 2023. However she noted that all
parties
involved in the
leave to appeal
(my emphasis) should agree on a date that will
suit all parties then forward the said date and see if it will suit
her too.
…
[6]
On the 13
th
June 2023, Mr Krause the instructing attorney
for the 7
th
and 8
th
respondents in an
electronic mail wherein he copied Mr Serunye, counsel for the
applicant, and all the other respondents’
legal
representatives, replied as follows;
Dear Mr Rapulana,
The date of the 28
th
of July is also suitable to Accused 7 & 8’s counsel.
Having discussed the
matter with Mr. Mantsha (Accused 1), Mr Moroka (Accused 2) and Adv
Edeling SC (Accused 3), we confirm that
they have previously
indicated their availability for 28 July 2023.
Mr. Forbay (Accused
4&5), Adv. Oldwage (Accused 6) and Ms. Witbooi (on behalf of the
State) have confirmed their availability
in the trailing emails
below.
Therefore all the
parties are available on the 28 July 2023
for purposes of the
application for leave to appeal
(my emphasis).
…
[7]
Consequently and upon agreement between the parties, the application
was set down for the 28
th
July 2023. As my acting term was
to expire on the 30
th
June 2023, the file was then
returned for reallocation. Until the expiry of my acting stint, this
was the sum total of my involvement
with the matter.
[8]
On the 20
th
June 2023 however
and unbeknownst to me, the aforesaid application was withdrawn
[4]
and in tandem with the withdrawal, the applicant lodged an
application in terms of section 319 of the Act for reservation of
questions
of law.
[5]
[9]
On the 17
th
July 2023 Mr Krause addressed correspondence
to the Judge President of this Division and copied both the applicant
and the remaining
respondents. In it he advised of the impending
irregularity if the application in terms of section 319 of the Act
was heard by
a Judge other than me. It is accordingly only after this
date that I was once more placed in possession of the file.
[10]
I pause here to mention an aspect which caused me great consternation
whilst preparing for this application.
Whilst perusing the file, I
came across correspondence addressed for my attention and dated 30
th
May
2023.
[6]
For
purposes of this judgment, I deem it apposite to reproduce the
contents thereof herein without emendation;
BY
EMAIL:
s[...]@judiciary.org.za
:
D[...]@judiciary.org.za
FOR
ATTENTION
: Acting Judge N. Gusha
Re: MBANA PETER
THABETHE & OTHERS
BLOEMFONTEIN HC CASE
08/22
1.
The above-mentioned matter has reference.
2.
On 8 May 2023, the State filed an application for
leave to appeal against the whole of the judgment, ruling and orders
of her Ladyship,
the Honourable Acting Justice Gusha, delivered on:
(a)
21 April 2023 upholding the applications by
Accused 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 for a discharge in terms of Section
174 of the Criminal
Procedure Act 51 of 1977 (
The
Act
), as well as the acquittal of
Accused 2; and
(b)
23 February 2023 ruling that “those
documents as contained in Exhibit bundle three” are
inadmissible as evidence against
the accused.
3.
The State intends to ask the Honourable Gusha AJ
to reserve questions of law in terms of section 319 of the Act, for
consideration
by the Supreme Court of Appeal.
4.
It is unclear from the judgment of the trial court
what its findings of fact are. It is therefore necessary for the
State to request
the trial court to clarify its factual findings.
5.
We therefore request that it be established what
facts did the Honourable Gusha AJ accept to be facts proved by the
State.
Thank you.
Yours Faithfully,
Adv Peter Serunye
State Advocate
[11] I
deem it apposite to mention this correspondence herein because,
evidently from the date thereof, albeit
its contents appear to
conflate the applications filed in terms of sections 317 and 319 of
the Act, the correspondence was authored
whilst the application in
terms of section 317 was still alive. In its application filed in
terms of section 319 of the Act and
its heads of arguments, the
applicant regrettably seems to suggest that their correspondence to
me went wilfully unanswered. This
I find most regrettable and
disquieting. I have painstakingly set out the chronology of events
precisely to illustrate that I did
not ignore any correspondence, I
was simply unaware thereof. For the applicant to assert otherwise in
its papers is truly lamentable.
I must however hasten to add that
when I broached this aspect with counsel during arguments, he
proffered somewhat of an apology.
THE
APPLICATION IN TERMS OF SECTION 319 OF THE ACT
[12]
I revert to the present judgment.
In
limine:
Condonation
[13]
In limine
the respondents raised that the application was
filed out of time. It was contended on behalf of the respondents that
the delay
in filing was excessive and that the application fell to be
dismissed on this score alone. To fortify their point, the
respondents
argued that the applicant is the author of its own misery
as it wasted time by filing an application, which in law was not
available
to it. Furthermore, when the latter was aborted, the
applicant moved an application to reserve questions of law
sans
an application for condonation.
[14]
The applicant in turn contends that its application is not out of
time as the applicable section does not
prescribe a time limit, only
providing that it be filed within a reasonable time. The applicant
further contends that as its application
is not out of time, there
was no reason for it to bring an application for condonation.
[15]
The applicable provision, section 319 of the Act, provides as
follows;
(1)
If any question of law arises on the trial in a superior court of any
person for any offence, that court may
of its own motion or at the
request either of the prosecutor or the accused reserve that question
for the consideration of the
Appellate Division, and thereupon the
first-mentioned court shall state the question reserved and shall
direct that it be specially
entered in the record and that a copy
thereof be transmitted to the registrar of the Appellate Division. "
(2)
The grounds upon which any objection to an indictment is taken shall,
for purposes of this section, be deemed
to be questions of law.
(3)
The provisions of section 317 (2), (4) and (5) and 318 (2) shall
apply, mutatis mutandis with reference to all
proceedings under this
section.
[16]
It is evident from the aforesaid section that it does not prescribe a
time within which the application of
reservation of a question of law
ought to be made. It however needs no restating that applications of
this nature must be brought
within a reasonable time. The question
whether the application has been brought within a reasonable time is
determined from the
time after the finalization of the case and the
filing of the application and not the time when the application is
heard.
[7]
In the present matter
therefore the delay, if any, will be determined from the 21
st
April
2023 until the 20
th
June
2023 when the application was filed. The applicant’s
application is accordingly filed 39 court days after the 21
st
April
2023 judgment.
[17]
Notwithstanding the delay in filing the application and the reasons
advanced by the applicant therefor, I
am of the view that the
interests of both parties to finality, the absence of prejudice on
the respondents (none was alleged) as
well as the interests of
justice, dictate that I should find in favour of the applicant and
conclude as I do, that all things considered
the application was
filed within a reasonable time. That being said, I would be the
remiss if I do not remark that the cavalierly
manner in which the
applicant approached this matter post the 21
st
April 2023
judgment is to be deprecated, it is after all established law that
applications in terms of section 317 of the Act are
not available to
the applicant.
The
applicable legal principles
[18]
I now turn to deal with whether the questions sought to be reserved
are questions of law or of fact. As a
starting point, it is a
salutary principle of our law that the applicant has a right of
appeal only against a trial court’s
mistakes of law, not its
mistakes of fact. However the distinction between questions of law
and questions of fact is often notoriously
difficult to draw.
[8]
[19]
What is clear is that the provisions of section 319 of the Act are
peremptory and require strict compliance,
as its purpose is to limit
appeals by the State. In
Director of Public Prosecutions: Limpopo
v Molope
and Another
[2020] ZASCA 69
wherein the court
cited with approval
Director of Public Prosecutions, Natal v
Magidela and Others
[2000] ZASCA 4
;
[2000] 2 All SA 337
(A) (SCA) the court
remarked as follows;
‘
The provisions
of section 319 and its predecessors have been the subject of judicial
interpretation over the years and in order
to see whether the
requirements of the section were complied with in this case it is
important to consider how the section has
been construed. The first
requirement is not complied with simply by stating a question of law.
At least two other requisites must
be met. The first is that the
question must be framed by the Judge "so as accurately to
express the legal point which he had
in mind" (R v Kewelram
1922
AD 1
at 3). Secondly, there must be certainty concerning the facts on
which the legal point is intended to hinge. This requires the court
to record the factual findings on which the point of law is dependent
(S v Nkwenja en ‘n Ander
1985 (2) SA 560
(A) at 567B-G). What
is more, the relevant facts should be set out fully in the record as
part of the question of law (S v Goliath
1972 (3) SA 1
(A) at
9H-10A). These requirements have been repeatedly emphasised in this
Court and are firmly established (see, for example,
S v Khoza en
Andere
[1990] ZASCA 142
;
1991 (1) SA 793
(A) at 796E-I). The point of law, moreover,
should be readily apparent from the record for if it is not, the
question cannot be
said to arise "on the trial" of a person
(S v Mulayo
1962 (2) SA 522
(A) at 526-527). Non constat that the
point should be formally raised at the trial: it is sufficient if it
"comes into existence"
during the hearing (R v Laubscher
1926 AD 276
at 280; R v Tucker
1953 (3) SA 150
(A) at 158H-159H). It
follows from these requirements that there should be certainty not
only on the factual issues on which the
point of law is based but
also regarding the law point that was in issue at the trial.’
[20]
From the aforementioned it is therefore clear that in order to avail
the provisions of section 319, three
jurisdictional facts must be
satisfied. First, it is essential that the question is framed
accurately leaving no doubt what the
legal point is. Secondly, the
facts upon which the point hinges must be clear. Thirdly, they should
be set out fully in the record
together with the question of law.
[9]
[21]
Unless
the State does this, it may not be possible for a court of appeal to
establish with certainty what the conclusions on the
legal point,
which the trial court arrived at, are. Where it is unclear from the
judgment of the trial court what its findings
of fact are, it is
therefore necessary to request the trial judge to clarify its factual
findings. Where this is not done, the
point of law is not properly
reserved.
[10]
The
questions of law sought to be reserved
[22]
In its application the applicant seeks the following to be reserved
as questions of law;
3.1
Whether, on the proven facts, the conduct of Respondents 1, 2, 3, 4,
5, 6, 7, and 8 prima
facie was brought within the ambit of the
offences of Contravention of Section 86 (1) of the
Public Finance
Management Act 1 of 1999
, Fraud and Money Laundering, as charged
respectively.
3.2
Whether in light of the prima facie evidence that was placed before
the Court the decision
to discharge the Respondents at the end of the
State’s case, contrary to legal precedent, was such an error of
law that it
constituted a gross irregularity in the trial, and it
prejudiced the State and should be set aside.
3.3.
Whether the learned trial judge erred in law by misinterpreting,
misapplying or overlooking legal
precedent as authority for the
discharge of the accused under
section 174
of the
Criminal Procedure
Act; specifically
whether the learned judge applied the law in
context of a case involving several accused who may implicate each
other.
3.4.
Did the Court err in terms of the law of documentary evidence in that
after the Court
found
TJM11 (Sundry Payment Advice), TJM12
(Transaction log sheet) and TJM13 (Nulane tax invoice dated 12 March
2012, for the amount of
R8 328 080.00) to be originals, she later
ruled the very same documents inadmissible.
3.5.
Whether the Court in respect of its ruling of 23 February 2023, that
documents tendered into
evidence by the State were inadmissible,
wrongly applied the law on the best evidence rule, had not exercised
its discretion judicially
or that it had been influenced by the wrong
principles.
3.6.
Did the Court, in respect of its application of the Doctrine of
Common purpose, contrary to established
law, wrongly expect the State
to prove prior agreement between the parties or that they knew each
other?
3.7.
Whether the Court correctly applied the law in terms of
Section 204
(2) that requires the witness to answer frankly and honestly all
questions put to him.
3.8.
Whether the court misdirected itself when conflating the question of
indemnity of the witness
in terms of Section 204(2) of the Act with
the judgment in terms of Section 174 of the Act
3.9.
Whether the Court’s failure to make findings of fact as
enjoined by Section 146(a) of the
Act and Article 9 of The Code of
Judicial Conduct adopted in terms of
Section 12
of the
Judicial
Service Commission Act 9 of 1994
rendered the trial unfair.
[23]
In support of its contention that the court
erred in its application of various legal principles to the evidence,
the applicant
expansively refers to the evidence in chief as
constituting the facts upon which the questions sought to be reserved
hinge. In
my view, it is not necessary to repeat same herein, as same
has been fully and extensively traversed in the papers as well as
during
arguments.
What is clear from the
application and indeed oral argument is that the facts upon which the
questions sought to be reserved pivot
are not clear. In this regard
the applicant contends that
it is
unclear from the
judgment
of the trial court what it’s finding of fact were
hence the correspondence to request that I clarify my factual
findings. I have considerable difficulty with this aspect. Firstly
that which is sought by the applicant in order to satisfy the
requirements of
section 319
, is to be found in the judgment. The fact
that same is not tabulated and or found under a particular heading
does not suggest that
no factual findings were made.
[24]
Secondly, I am alive to the fact that the applicable authorities do
not prescribe how the request ought to
be made, I however hold the
view that in order to ensure that the parties are even-stevens, that
request cannot be in the form
of a letter directed to a Judge in
chambers and without so much as copying the opposing side. In my view
that request ought to
be in a form of an application.
[25]
To the extent that the applicant refers in the application and the
heads of argument, to the facts upon which
the legal questions hinge,
a proper reading of the application reveal that
all that the applicant does is to rehash primarily the evidence in
chief and in
some instances not even accounting for the cross
examination that followed.
[26]
In my view the facts upon which the legal
question should pivot, are those facts found to be proven by the
trial court, no more
no less.
[27]
This in my view ought to be the end of the matter, for if the
applicant is in the dark about the very proven
facts on which its
questions of law pivot then clearly the strict and peremptory
requirements have not been met. What the applicant
attempts to
achieve
[11]
is exactly what
the court in
Schoeman
cautioned
against;
If we were to
entertain the appeal on the merits, we would face the task of having
to ascertain the relevant facts. To this end,
we would have to read
the entire record and re-evaluate all of the evidence, thereby
second-guessing the trial judge who was best
placed to do this. We
would thus have to approach the matter as if this were a full appeal
on the merits. The problem does not
end there. Having embarked on
this task, we would have to decide whether the facts established by
us accord with those found by
the trial court. It is only if we find
that the factual findings of the trial court were wrong and the
result of a legal error
would we be obliged to interfere with the
decision of the trial court.
[28]
I shall however, perhaps for the sake of finality, take the matter
further and determine whether that which
is sought to be reserved are
in fact questions of law or of fact.
[29]
I now turn to deal with the individual questions sought to be
reserved.
(i).
Whether, on the proven facts, the conduct of Respondents 1, 2,
3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8 prima facie was brought within the ambit of the
offences of Contravention of
Section 86
(1) of the Public Finance
Management Act 1 of 1999, Fraud and Money Laundering, as charged
respectively.
[30]
This question as framed illustrates the point already made in this
judgment. The difficulty the applicant
faces is that as pointed out
already, it contends that it does not know the factual basis upon
which the court based its decision.
Furthermore the question sought
to be reserved is not a question of law but rather an attempt to send
to the appeal court that
which it has no power to do; to discern for
itself the facts found to be proven and then make an assessment as to
whether as a
matter of fact, the applicant’s case was
prima
facie
proved or not.
[31]
On the test as set out in
Schoeman
, this question falls foul
of the requirements. In any event to the extent that it can be
successfully argued that I misdirected
myself in the evaluation of
the evidence before me, the following
dictum
in
Schoeman
is instructive in this regard;
[74]
Put simply, the
mere fact the judicial process has become flawed by the way a trial
court goes about assessing the evidence before
it, does not justify
permitting s 319 to be used by the prosecution to reserve a point of
law for what is in truth misdirection
of fact. That impermissibly
undermines the clear language of the section and the deliberate
choice of the legislature to restrict
appeals in terms of the section
to questions of law. The law as reflected in Canadian cases cited in
Pistorius does not reflect
the position in our law.
(ii).
Whether in light of the prima facie evidence that was placed
before the Court the decision to discharge the Respondents at the end
of the State’s case, contrary to legal precedent, was such an
error of law that it constituted a gross irregularity in the
trial,
and it prejudiced the State and should be set aside.
[32]
This question too poses extreme difficulty for the applicant for the
same reason as alluded to in the 1
st
question sought to be reserved.
It needs no restating that
evidence must be seen through the prism of the evaluation thereof by
the trier of fact. On this score
too, in my view the judgment speaks
for itself.
[33]
Furthermore what the applicant attempts to do
is frame questions of fact as questions of law. In arriving at the
decision to discharge
the 1
st
,
2
nd
to 8
th
respondents the court applied established legal principles as set out
amongst others in
S v Lubaxa
2001 (2) SACR 703
(SCA) and
S v Dewani
CC15/2012)[2014]
ZAWCHC 188(8 December 2014. In any event it needs no restating that
the decision to discharge an accused involves
an exercise of a
discretion by the trial court. The question whether there is any
evidence upon which a court acting reasonably
might convict, is
essentially a matter of the court’s assessment of the evidence,
that is quintessentially a question of
fact.
(iii).
Whether the learned trial judge erred in law by
misinterpreting, misapplying or overlooking legal precedent as
authority for the
discharge of the accused under
section 174
of the
Criminal Procedure Act; specifically
whether the learned judge
applied the law in context of a case involving several accused who
may implicate each other.
[34]
Once more the fact that certain aspects
were
not mentioned in the judgment, does not necessarily mean that they
were not considered. It seems to me that the applicant suggests
with
the question above, that I overlooked (which I did not) the following
from the
Lubaxa
judgment;
[20]
The same considerations do not necessarily arise, however, where
the prosecution’s case against one accused might be
supplemented
by the evidence of a co-accused. The prosecution is
ordinarily entitled to rely upon the evidence of an accomplice and it
is not
self-evident why it should necessarily be precluded from doing
so merely because it has chosen to prosecute more than one person
jointly.
While it is true that the caution that is required
to be exercised when evaluating the evidence of an accomplice might
at times
render it futile to continue such a trial
(Skeen,
supra, at 293 ) that need not always be the case.
(my emphasis)
[35]
This is precisely what the judgment of the 21
st
April
illustrates.
[36]
The
Lubaxa
judgment however goes further;
[21]
Whether, or in what circumstances, a trial court should discharge
an accused who might be incriminated by a co-accused, is not a
question that can be answered in the abstract, for the circumstances
in which the question arises are varied. While there might
be cases
in which it would be unfair not to do so,
one can envisage
circumstances in which to do so would compromise the proper
administration of justice. What is entailed by a fair
trial must
necessarily be determined by the particular circumstances
.
In the present case those circumstances do not exist, for the reasons
that follow, and I do not think it is appropriate to deal
with the
problem. (my emphasis)
[37]
To ascertain what those circumstances might be, is purely a question
of fact and not of law. It is a fact
based enquiry.
(iv).
Did the Court err in terms of the law of documentary evidence
in that after the Court found TJM11 (Sundry Payment Advice), TJM12
(Transaction log sheet) and TJM13 (Nulane tax invoice dated 12 March
2012, for the amount of R8 328 080.00) to be originals, she
later
ruled the very same documents inadmissible.
[38]
Once more the answer to this question is to be found in the judgment.
[116]
However even if it could somehow be successfully argued that I
misdirected myself on the admissibility
of the disputed documents,
the fact still remains, if admitted, what was the court expected to
do with same, in the face of the
evidence it was presented with. The
answer is zilch. With the findings I made in respect of Mr Cezula,
what weight, if any, could
I attach thereto? Secondly the fact that
Accused 3 appended her signature on the submission is still not
corroboration for the
veracity of Mr Cezula’s evidence. If
regard is had to the Gentle decision supra, corroboration is other
evidence which supports
the evidence of the complainant, and which,
on the issues in dispute
, renders the evidence of the accused
less probable. Accused 3 does not dispute her signature she disputes
the circumstances under
which it was appended. The state did not lead
evidence to fortify Mr Cezula’s evidence on this aspect.
[39]
This is not a question of law at all, if anything it is once more an
illustration of how the applicant misconstrues
the judgment
complained of. This is quintessentially a matter of evaluation of the
evidence as presented. It is patently clear
from the judgment that
there were no contradictory rulings. The ruling of the 23
rd
February 2023 was a provisional ruling on the admissibility of the
documents. To illustrate this, Mr Semenya, the erstwhile counsel
for
the 2
nd
respondent, after the aforesaid ruling, attempted
to bring an application in terms of section 317 of the Act, he
however later
withdrew same after having had the benefit of the
transcribed record reflecting that the ruling at the time was a
provisional one.
[40]
In any event and at the risk of repetition
, the mere fact the
judicial process has become flawed by the way a trial court goes
about assessing the evidence before it, does
not justify permitting s
319 to be used by the prosecution to reserve a point of law for what
is in truth misdirection of fact.
That impermissibly undermines the
clear language of the section and the deliberate choice of the
legislature to restrict appeals
in terms of the section to questions
of law. The law as reflected in Canadian cases cited in Pistorius
does not reflect the position
in our law.
(v).
Whether the Court in respect of its ruling of 23 February 2023,
that documents tendered into evidence by the State were inadmissible,
wrongly applied the law on the best evidence rule, had not exercised
its discretion judicially or that it had been influenced by
the wrong
principles.
[41]
Here too the applicant has difficulty. This too is purely a question
of fact and not law. The question whether
the best evidence rule has
been satisfied for the admissibility of a document is a factual
question. In the judgment the court
found that same was not
satisfied. Furthermore, as already alluded, the exercise of a
discretion and whether it was exercised judiciously
is a fact-based
enquiry.
(vi).
Did the Court, in respect of its application of the Doctrine of
Common purpose, contrary to established law, wrongly expect the State
to prove prior agreement between the parties or that they knew each
other?
[42]
Proof of an existence of a common purpose is a fact-based enquiry. In
the judgment it was found that on the
proven facts, same was not
established. Furthermore, a proper reading of the judgment reveals
that at no stage did the court intimate
that common purpose can
only
be established by proving prior agreement between the accused. In
fact what was found is that the applicant did not prove any common
purpose between the accused. This is a factual finding.
(vii).
Whether the Court correctly applied the law in terms of Section
204 (2) that requires the witness to answer frankly and honestly
all
questions put to him.
[43]
In my view this question in so far as it is disguised as a question
of fact, is of no moment. In its own
arguments during the application
for discharge, the applicant submitted that when dealing with the
provisions of section 204, the
court correctly applied the provisions
and properly warned Mr Cezula. This in my view puts paid to this
question, in any event
on this score too, the judgment is
instructive.
(viii).
Whether the court misdirected itself when conflating the question
of indemnity of the witness in terms of Section 204(2)of the Act
with
the judgment in terms of Section 174 of the Act
[44]
This question too is not a question of law but rather one of fact
disguised as a question of law. Having
properly applied the
provisions of the section, as submitted by the applicant, how was the
court to arrive at the decision whether
Mr Cezula answered questions
put to him frankly and honestly? The answer is simple; by making
credibility findings regarding his
evidence. I found that he did not
factually admit to committing any offence let alone the one that
would have availed him the protection
in the Act, accordingly he
could not be indemnified. Did I conflate the two? The answer is no.
In any event even if it could be
successfully argued that I did, that
would not have affected the acquittal of the 1
st
, 3
rd
to 8
th
respondents, for the question whether Mr Cezula is
indemnified or not has no bearing on whether the acquittal is good or
bad in
law.
(ix).
Whether the Court’s failure to make findings of fact as
enjoined by Section 146(a) of the Act and Article 9 of The Code of
Judicial Conduct adopted in terms of
Section 12
of the
Judicial
Service Commission Act 9 of 1994
rendered the trial unfair.
45.
In answer to this question I can do no better than this paragraph
from the heads of argument of the
7
th
and 8
th
respondents;
74.
The findings of fact and law are those to be found in the judgment
itself. There are no
further reasons required. One must ask
rhetorically what more does one seek of a judge than to set forth the
evidence of a witness,
analyse it on terms of both the evidence given
and the evidence as cross –examined, and make an evaluation as
a trier of
fact of the worth of that evidence, and the cogency of
that evidence in establishing the case that the State was required to
make.
That is the very function of a court, and that is the function
that the judgment performed.
CONCLUSION
[46]
Having gone through the questions sought to be reserved I am of the
view that the questions sought to be
reserved are questions of fact
and not law. In any event I align myself with the following
sentiments in
Schoeman;
‘
As
Corbett CJ pointed out in Magmoed, even where there are “strong
indications” from the evidence that there were cogent
reasons
to convict an accused “[t]hese considerations” must not.
. . be allowed to obscure one’s perception of
the legal and
policy issues involved in permitting
s 319
to be utilized in the
manner the prosecution in this case wishes to use it; or to weaken
one’s resolve to maintain what appears
to be sound legal
practice.
Put simply, the
mere fact the judicial process has become flawed by the way a trial
court goes about assessing the evidence before
it, does not justify
permitting
s 319
to be used by the prosecution to reserve a point of
law for what is in truth misdirection of fact. That impermissibly
undermines
the clear language of the section and the deliberate
choice of the legislature to restrict appeals in terms of the section
to questions
of law.
(my emphasis).
[47]
In conclusion, even if it were to be successfully argued that the
questions of law sought to be reserved
were indeed such, the question
becomes, what would the practical effect of that judgment be in the
face of the evidence as led.
It is after all a salutary principle of
our law that courts do not normally decide academic questions of law
the decision must
be of practical effect.
[12]
ORDER
[48]
In the result I make the following order;
1.
The application is dismissed.
NG
GUSHA, AJ
On
behalf of the applicant
Adv.
N Cassim SC, Adv. Peter
Serunye,
Adv J Witbooi (she)
Instructed
by:
Director
of Public Prosecutions
BLOEMFONTEIN
On
behalf of the 1
st
respondent:
Mr
L Mantsha
Instructed
by:
Mantsha
Attorneys c/o Bokwa Attorneys
BLOEMFONTEIN
On
behalf of the 2
nd
respondent:
Adv.
M.S Mazibuko
Instructed
by:
Moroka
Attorneys
BLOEMFONTEIN
On
behalf of the 3
rd
respondent:
Adv.
W J Edeling SC
Instructed
by:
Bokwa
Attorneys
BLOEMFONTEIN
On
behalf of the 4
th
and 5
th
respondent:
Mr
B Forbay
Instructed
by:
Forbay
Attorneys
BLOEMFONTEIN
On
behalf of the 6
th
respondent:
Adv.
K Oldwage
Instructed
by:
Stan
Fanaroff and Associates
c/o
Blair Attorneys
BLOEMFONTEIN
On
behalf of the 7
th
and 8
th
respondents:
Adv.
M Hellens SC and Adv DJ Joubert SC
Instructed
by:
Krause
Attorneys Inc
BLOEMFONTEIN
[1]
The trial commenced on the 23
rd
January 2023 and
was finalised on the 21
st
April 2023.
[2]
Pages 1 -41 of the application bundle.
[3]
At the time of the allocation, only the 7
th
and 8
th
respondents had
filed their notices to oppose.
[4]
Page 60 of the bundle.
[5]
Ibid
pages 68-142.
[6]
Pages 143-144 of the application bundle.
[7]
S v
Legote en ‘n Ander
1999 (1) SACR 269
(O).
[8]
DPP,
Western Cape v Schoeman & another
(904/2017)
[2019] ZASCA 158
(28 November 2019)
[9]
DPP,
Western Cape v Schoeman & another
(904/2017)
[2019] ZASCA 158
(28 November 2019) at para 39.
[10]
Ibid at para 40.
[11]
By the applicant’s own admission the record is in excess of
2000 pages.
[12]
Director
–General Department of Home Affairs and Another v Mukhamadiva
Case
CCT 61/13
[2013] ZACC 47
at para 34,
Attorney-General,
Transvaal v Flats Milling Co (Pty) Ltd and Others
1958
(3) SA 360
(A).