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[2023] ZAECQBHC 33
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Mandel v South African Civil Aviation Authority and Others (1467/2023) [2023] ZAECQBHC 33 (6 June 2023)
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Certain
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IN THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
(EASTERN CAPE DIVISION, GQEBERHA)
NOT REPORTABLE
Case no: 1467 / 2023
In the matter between:
DAVID
BERNARD MANDEL
Applicant
And
SOUTH
AFRICAN CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY
First
Respondent
NKOSIKHONA
MDLALOSE N.O.
Second
Respondent
POPPY
KHOZA N.O.
Third
Respondent
THE
CHAIRPERSON OF THE APPEAL COMMITTEE N.O.
Fourth
Respondent
JUDGMENT
Govindjee J
[1]
The applicant is a passionate and
experienced pilot, holding a private pilot’s licence (‘the
licence’) for approximately
40 years, with an unblemished
flying record. He regularly receives invitations to fly in air shows
and pilots his own planes between
South African cities on a weekly
basis for business purposes. On 25 September 2022, the applicant was
flying the L39 Albatross
jet trainer aircraft when he observed people
lying on a runway near Knysna. He undertook a pass at 1000 feet above
ground level
(AGL), subsequently also dipping his wings to encourage
them to clear. When they failed to do so, he returned to Plettenberg
Bay.
[2]
The applicant’s conduct was viewed by
officials of the First Respondent (‘the CAA’) and
escalated to its enforcement
unit as a violation of Civil Aviation
Regulations. Subsequently, his licence was suspended for a period of
six months from 6 April
2023 until 5 October 2023.
[3]
The
applicant approaches the court on an urgent basis, seeking interim
relief suspending the outcome of two administrative decisions,
which
have the effect of suspending his licence, pending review
proceedings.
[1]
The application is opposed by the first to third respondents (‘the
respondents’) for three reasons:
a)
lack of urgency;
b)
non-joinder of the Minister of Transport;
c) failure to make out a prima facie
case for success in the review application.
Urgency
[4]
The applicant claims that he will be
prejudiced given that he utilises his aircrafts for business and
personal travel on a weekly
basis. He also flies his aircrafts for
practice and to maintain his skillset. In particular, his concern
appears to stem from his
commitment to participate in various air
shows during 2023. Waiting for a further appeal would cause severe
prejudice given that
it is unlikely that the appeal will be resolved
within the period of suspension. This, it is alleged, will cause the
applicant
embarrassment in the flying community, who expect the
applicant to perform at the upcoming air shows.
[5]
A
judge may, in cases of urgency, dispense with the forms and service
provided for in the Uniform Rules and dispose of the matter
at a time
and place and in such manner and in accordance with such procedure as
seems meet.
[2]
The degree of relaxation of the rules must be commensurate with the
exigency of the case.
[3]
The procedure adopted must comply with the standard rules as far as
is practicable. The major considerations in deciding whether
or not
to exercise the court’s power to abridge the times prescribed
and to accelerate the hearing of a matter are the following:
[4]
·
The prejudice that the applicants might
suffer by having to wait for a hearing in the ordinary course;
·
The prejudice that other litigants might
suffer if the applicant is given preference; and
·
The prejudice that respondents might suffer
by the abridgment of the prescribed times and an early hearing.
[6]
The
question as to the absence of ‘substantial redress’ in an
application brought on usual timeframes lies at the heart
of the
question of urgency.
[5]
The applicant has set forth the circumstances rendering the matter
urgent. While it may be the case that the applicant could utilise
other transportation options while his licence has been suspended, as
the respondents’ argued,
[6]
the papers explain that the applicant is a frequent flyer and that
flying is linked to business and personal dimensions of his
life,
including commitments to participate in forthcoming air shows. Given
the nature of the relief sought, I am satisfied that
he would not be
afforded substantial redress if the matter were to follow its normal
course. By then, the period of suspension
would inevitably have
expired so that the applicant would be deprived of substantial
redress. The matter, in my view, passes the
test for urgency and
qualified to be enrolled on an urgent basis
The duty to exhaust internal
remedies
[7]
The
respondents’ submission as to the need to join the Minister of
Transport (‘the Minister’) is linked to the
applicant’s
duty to exhaust internal remedies.
[7]
In terms of the Civil Aviation Act, 2009
[8]
(‘the Act’), a person aggrieved by a decision of a
Director to suspend a licence in terms of the Act may file a written
appeal with the appeal committee (‘the committee’)
against such decision within 30 days after receipt of the reasons
for
the decision.
[9]
Section 122 of the Act deals with the establishment of the committee
by the Minister, who is expected to appoint suitably qualified
members on a part-time basis after inviting interested persons to
apply following notice in the Government Gazette and in the
media.
[10]
Members hold office for a period of three years.
[11]
While an appeal to the committee does not suspend any decision of the
Director pending its outcome,
[12]
the Rules Regulating the Conduct of the Proceedings of the Appeal
Committee (‘the Rules’), issued by the Minister in
terms
of the Act, makes provision for urgent appeals, dispensing with the
forms and service provided for in the Rules where appropriate.
[13]
[8]
The applicant claims exemption from the
duty in the circumstances of the matter. This is based on
correspondence received from the
Department of Transport (‘the
department’) on 11 May 2023, in response to receipt of the
applicant’s appeal to
the committee, which indicates as follows
(sic):
‘
Kindly
be advised that we currently do not have an Appeal Committee in
place. However, we have started with the process of appointing
the
Committee, it is anticipated that the Committee will be operational
by June 2023 should we not experience any challenges beyond
our
control. We will keep you updated in this regard.’
[9]
In further correspondence, the secretariat
acknowledged that the process of appointing the committee was beyond
its control, adding
that it anticipated an operational committee ‘in
June or July 2023’.
[10]
The
Constitutional Court has clarified the proper interpretation of s
7(2) of the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act, 2000
(‘PAJA’),
with reference to international law. Of relevance is the emphasis
that has been placed on the availability
of an internal remedy:
[14]
‘
In
a constitutional democracy like ours, where the substantive enjoyment
of rights has a high premium, it is important that any
existing
administrative remedy be an effective one. A remedy will be effective
if it is objectively implemented, taking into account
the relevant
principles and values of administrative justice present in the
Constitution and our law. An internal remedy must also
be readily
available and it must be possible to pursue without any obstruction,
whether systemic or arising from unwarranted administrative
conduct.
Factors such as these will be taken into account when a court
determines whether exceptional circumstances exist, making
it in the
interests of justice to intervene.’ (references omitted.)
[11]
In
particular, internal remedies must be available, effective and
adequate to oust a court’s jurisdiction in a constitutionally
acceptable manner.
[15]
A court must exercise its judicial review powers either when all
available internal administrative remedies are found to have been
exhausted or when exceptional circumstances are found to exist.
[16]
An exemption will be granted, on a case-by-case basis, if an
aggrieved party makes a good faith attempt to exhaust internal
remedies,
but is frustrated in their efforts to do so.
[17]
Circumstances are considered ‘exceptional’, for purposes
of s 7(2)
(c)
of PAJA, when they are ‘such as to require the immediate
intervention of the courts rather than resort to the applicable
internal remedy’.
[18]
[12]
The importance of appeals to the committee
cannot be gainsaid, given that the intention appears to be that they
comprise fully fledged,
formal hearings. Their outcomes and reasoning
can only be of benefit to courts sitting on appeal or review. It is
also accepted
that the architecture of the Act is such that the
committee serves an important function, and that the intention is to
preserve
decisions of enforcement specialists and the Director
pending appeals, in advancement of the purpose and objectives of the
Act
and to promote and maintain safety and security in the aviation
industry.
[13]
In
the present instance, however, it cannot be said that the applicant
is able to pursue recourse to the committee without impediment.
[19]
This is borne out by the respondents’ argument that the
Minister ought to have been joined, in order to fast-track the
establishment
of the committee. Absent its operationalisation, it
cannot be said that the internal appeal to the committee would be
effective,
as opposed to futile, thereby justifying this bypass.
[20]
This is because the committee is seemingly not functioning. The
process of appointing its members seems to have been started, but
there is no guarantee that it will be completed imminently,
particularly considering the statutorily prescribed process for
appointing
members described above. The department concedes that it
may not be established during the course of this month or next month,
with vague reference to possible challenges beyond its control. These
constitute exceptional circumstances, where there is a real
risk that
the suspension will lapse by time any appeal to the committee is
heard and determined, rendering this avenue illusory.
An exemption
is, therefore, justified. It may be added, in support of this
outcome, that cases have confirmed that courts should
‘incline
to an interpretation of the facts and the law that promotes, rather
than hampers, access to the courts’.
[21]
[14]
This finding disposes of the respondents’
argument that the applicant will be afforded a substantial hearing in
due course,
so that the application is premature. Given that there
exist exceptional circumstances to exempt the applicant from the
obligation
to exhaust the appeal to the committee, which is a case
made out on the papers, it would make little sense to compel the
applicant
to have joined the Minister. Whether this would result in
progress in establishing the committee is speculation. The point is
that
it is not obligatory for the applicant to take steps to ensure
the establishment of the committee in an instance where he seeks
urgent relief relating to the suspension of his licence, and where an
internal remedy is presently unavailable. Significantly,
part of the
main relief sought in part B of the application is for a declaration
that the applicant is exempted, to the extent
necessary, from the
obligation to exhaust any internal remedies in terms of the Act. The
remaining relief pertains to review of
the second and third
respondents’ decisions. Only in alternative relief was mention
made of the fourth respondent and it
may be accepted, for present
purposes, that it is for the Minister and department to constitute
this body.
[15]
The remaining basis of opposition is that
the applicant has not made out a
prima
facie
case for success in the review
application.
Applications for interim relief
[16]
Applicants
seeking interim relief must establish:
[22]
a)
A clear right or, if not clear, that they
have a
prima facie
right;
b)
That, if the right is only
prima
facie
established, there is a
well-grounded apprehension of irreparable harm if the interim relief
is not granted and the ultimate relief
is eventually granted;
c)
That the balance of convenience favours the
grant of an interim interdict; and
d)
That they have no other satisfactory
remedy.
[17]
In
cases where a clear right is not established, a person seeking
interim relief is required to establish at least a
prima
facie
right to relief, even if open to some doubt. The applicant need not
establish that right on a balance of probabilities. The oft-quoted
passage from
Webster
v Mitchell
explains
the enquiry as follows:
[23]
‘
In
the grant of a temporary interdict, apart from prejudice involved,
the first question for the Court…is whether, if interim
protection is given, the applicant could ever obtain the rights he
seeks to protect.
Prima
facie
that has to be shown. The use of the phrase “
prima
facie
established
though open to some doubt” indicates…that more is
required than merely to look at the allegations of the
applicant, but
something short of a weighing up of the probabilities of conflicting
versions is required. The proper manner of
approach…is to take
the facts as set out by the applicant, together with any facts set
out by the respondent which the applicant
cannot dispute, and to
consider whether, having regard to the inherent probabilities, the
applicant could on those facts obtain
final relief…The facts
set up in contradiction by the respondent should then be considered.
If serious doubt is thrown on
the case of the applicant he could not
succeed in obtaining temporary relief…But if there is mere
contradiction, or unconvincing
explanation, the matter should be left
to trial and the right be protected in the meanwhile, subject of
course to the respective
prejudice in the grant or refusal of interim
relief…the position of the respondent is protected because…the
test
whether or not temporary relief is to be granted is the harm
which will be done…’
[18]
That
enquiry has subsequently been refined, so that the test is now
whether the applicant
should
(not
could) obtain final relief on those facts.
[24]
[19]
Irreparable
harm is an element in cases where the right asserted by the
applicants, though
prima
facie
established,
is open to some doubt. In such cases, the accepted test to be applied
is whether the continuance of the thing against
which an interdict is
sought would cause irreparable injury to the applicant. If so, the
better course is to grant the relief,
but only if the discontinuance
of the act complained of would not involve irreparable injury to the
respondent.
[25]
As to the balance of convenience,
Webster
v Mitchell
goes as far as to state that if there is greater possible prejudice
to the respondent an interim interdict will be refused.
[26]
[20]
In
Eriksen
Ltd v Protea Motors and Another
,
[27]
Holmes JA stated as follows:
‘
The
granting of an interim interdict pending an action is an
extraordinary remedy within the discretion of the Court. Where the
right which it is sought to protect is not clear, the Court’s
approach in the matter of an interim interdict was lucidly
laid down
by Innes JA in
Setlogelo
v Setlogelo
,
1914 AD
221
at p. 227. In general, the requisites are –
a)
A right which, “though
prima facie
established, is open
to some doubt”;
b)
A well-grounded
apprehension of irreparable injury;
c)
The absence of ordinary
remedy.
In
exercising its discretion, the Court weighs,
inter alia
, the
prejudice to the applicant if the interdict is withheld against the
prejudice to the respondent if it is granted. This is
sometimes
called the balance of convenience. The foregoing considerations are
not individually decisive, but are interrelated;
for example, the
stronger the applicant’s prospects of success the less his need
to rely on prejudice to himself. Conversely,
the more the element of
‘some doubt’, the greater the need for the other factors
to favour him. The Court considers
the affidavits as a whole, and the
interrelation of the foregoing considerations, according to the facts
and probabilities…Viewed
in that light, the reference to a
right which, “though
prima facie
established, is open to
some doubt” is apt, flexible and practical, and needs no
further elaboration.’
The
applicant’s facts
[21]
The applicant’s case is that he was
flying at approximately 700 km/h, approximately 1000 feet AGL, and
undertaking an initial
runway inspection to ensure a safe operational
environment for landing, when he noticed an obstruction on the
runway. He undertook
another pass at a higher altitude and
established that there were people lying on the runway. He pulled the
aircraft up before
undertaking a slower pass at 1000 feet AGL, also
dipping his wings to encourage the people to clear. When they failed
to do so,
he left the circuit and returned to Plettenberg Bay,
considering the incident to be isolated and bizarre.
[22]
The applicant made representations in
response to a notice from the second respondent informing him of the
intended licence suspension.
Almost four months later, and without
reference to the applicant’s written representations, the
second respondent confirmed
that his licence had been suspended for
six months, adding a new ground to the complaint. In addition, the
applicant was subjected
to successfully passing the Air Law
Examination. He was informed of a right to appeal to the third
respondent (‘the director’),
which he did on 6 April
2023. Through his representative,
Mr
Friedman
, the applicant noted, inter
alia, that he had not been provided with any documentary evidence in
support of the allegations. He
was informed a week later that his
appeal had been unsuccessful. This was on the basis that the
violation of the applicable provisions
posed a serious threat to
aviation safety and the public.
[23]
The
applicant’s objection is that the complaint was only initiated
three months after the incident and that his suspension
followed
seven months after the fact, circumstances clearly not warranting
immediate suspension of licence. The suspension occurred
in an
arbitrary, unlawful and irregular manner, based on various subparts
of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2011 (‘the Regulations’).
In particular, an enforcement officer was empowered to take
administrative action leading to the imposition of a prescribed
penalty
where it was established, on a balance of probabilities, that
the conduct of a person or entity constituted an offence and that
such conduct was grossly negligent or wilful.
[28]
Notice of investigation should:
[29]
·
specify the nature of the alleged offence
committed;
·
include evidence being relied upon
pertaining to the alleged offence;
·
invite the alleged offender to make
representations either orally or in writing on the allegations within
30 days of the issue or
service of the notice.
[24]
The outcome was to be communicated by the
enforcement officer ‘following an investigation’. By
contrast, the second
respondent had formed the view that the alleged
conduct was worthy of the sanction of suspension without
investigation. The applicant
had not received any of the evidence
relied upon by the second respondent and was only afforded 14 days in
which to respond. This
amounted to procedural unfairness. In
addition, lack of reference to any of the applicant’s
representations demonstrated
failure to establish wilful or grossly
negligent conduct on a balance of probabilities. It was therefore
argued that the second
respondent’s decision was reviewable on
a number of PAJA grounds.
[25]
The applicant argued that the director
confirmed the second respondent’s decision without affording
him a reasonable opportunity
to make representations, present and
dispute information and arguments or to appear in person. The
director had the option, in
terms of s 118(6) of the Act, to afford
the applicant such opportunities which, it was submitted, would have
been appropriate when
considering the material irregularities
regarding the second respondent’s decision. The director’s
decision to perpetuate
these irregularities therefore contravened
PAJA and ought to be reviewed and set aside.
Respondents’
facts
[26]
The
applicant acted in contravention of various parts of the Regulations
which deal with safety operations of an aircraft and minimum
heights
over congested areas or over an obvious open-air assembly of persons.
On more than one occasion he flew dangerously low
over a runway on
which a group of four people were lying, also ‘wing dipping’
to encourage the people to move. The
group constituted an obvious
open-air assembly of persons. His conduct was irresponsible,
dangerous and grossly negligent. On 6
April 2023, the second
respondent (an enforcement specialist) decided to suspend his licence
due to the gravity of the transgressions.
[30]
This decision was confirmed by the director.
[27]
In
response to the allegations of procedural unfairness, the respondents
rely on the Enforcement Manual of Procedures (‘the
Manual’),
which guide enforcement specialists in the performance of their
duties.
[31]
The Manual makes reference to an evaluation of the violator’s
conduct, attitude and compliance history, including evaluation
of a
trend of noncompliance. The level of risk must also be analysed,
including categorisation of the severity and likelihood of
the
‘hazard’, that is, the dangerous condition created by the
apparent violation(s).
[32]
Severity and likelihood are to be determined separately, the former
without consideration of the likelihood of that severity being
realised. Importantly, ‘likelihood’ is to be considered
and determined only after the determination of severity.
[33]
After consideration of the applicant’s representations, the
contravention of regulations 91.01.10, 91.06.32 and 94.05.01
were
adjudged ‘severe and catastrophic’. On the respondents’
approach, the next step was to determine the incident
level before
considering the appropriate sanction. No mention is made of a proper
determination of ‘likelihood’, as
explained by the
Manual, including consideration of whether the worst type of injury
or damage was ‘frequently’, ‘occasionally’
or
‘remotely’ likely to occur. Importantly, the risk
assessment and enforcement action matrix reflects that even an
assessment of catastrophic severity might only result in a warning
letter in the event that likelihood was determined as ‘remote’.
[28]
In
casu, the severity of the contravention resulted in a ‘Level 1
finding’ necessitating the exercise of immediate discretionary
enforcement powers.
[34]
The second respondent determined that it was necessary to suspend the
applicant’s licence, and to do so for a period of six
months.
Analysis
[29]
Taking
the facts set out by the applicant together with the facts set out by
the respondent which the applicant cannot dispute,
I am satisfied
that the applicant has demonstrated a
prima
facie
right and should, on the facts provided, obtain the principle final
relief he seeks on those facts. The main basis for this is
the
apparent failure, on the respondents’ own version, to comply
with the prescribed process by considering the issue of
‘likelihood’
in determining the appropriate sanction to be imposed on the
applicant. Lawfulness is a well-established
component of the
constitutional right to just administrative action and, in terms of
PAJA, it is accepted that all relevant considerations
must be taken
into account by an administrator.
[35]
To this may be added the procedural anomalies raised by the applicant
in respect of the notice of intended suspension. These matters
were
not addressed on appeal to the director.
[30]
The additional facts set up in
contradiction by the respondents do not cast serious doubt on the
applicant’s case, which is
premised on the constitutional right
to just administrative action.
[31]
The applicant has also established a
well-grounded apprehension of irreparable harm if the interim relief
is not granted and the
ultimate relief is eventually granted.
Objectively assessed, the applicant is right to be concerned that the
period of suspension
of his licence will lapse, in the absence of any
further available internal remedy, before the part B review is heard
and finalised.
This will impact on the applicant’s rights to
just administrative action and dignity, in that the applicant will be
deprived
of utilising his aircraft for business and personal reasons,
and for participation in air shows to which he has committed himself.
[32]
The court must also weigh the prejudice to
the applicant if the interdict is refused against the prejudice to
the respondents if
it is granted. The respondents argue that the CAA
will be prejudiced in the event that the applicant does not serve the
entire
six-month suspension period, also for purposes of deterring
any future transgressions of the same nature, which outweighs any
inconvenience
to the applicant. Granting the interim relief would, it
is suggested, constitute a bad precedent. This is balanced by the
prejudice
to the applicant in the form of being deprived of the
licence, and the ability to fly for personal and business reasons, as
previously
discussed. As
Mr Beyleveld
pointed out, the absence of prejudice to the CAA is demonstrated by
the reality that the applicant continued to fly for some months
after
the incident. Granting the interim relief on the facts of this matter
will not create any undesirable precedent binding on
other courts and
the CAA’s objectives relating to civil aviation safety and
security may receive expression subsequent to
the review. Considering
these factors, together with the absence of an alternative remedy, in
the appropriate, inter-related manner
required, results in the
conclusion that this part of the application must succeed.
[33]
The following order will issue:
1.
The implementation of the First
Respondent’s decision of 6 April 2023, suspending the
applicant’s private pilot’s
licence for a period of six
months, and confirmed by the second respondent’s decision of 13
April 2023, is suspended pending
the determination of part B of the
application.
2.
The hearing of Part B of the application is
postponed
sine die
,
to be enrolled in terms of the rules of court.
3.
Costs are reserved.
A GOVINDJEE
JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Heard:
6 June 2023
Delivered:
6 June 2023
Appearances:
For
the applicant:
Adv
A Beyleveld SC
Adv
T Rossi
Instructed
by:
Friedman
Scheckter
75
Second Avenue
Newton
Park
Gqeberha
For
the first to third respondents:
Adv
T Lupuwana
Instructed
by:
Boqwana
Burns Inc
84-6
th
Avenue
Newton
Park
Gqeberha
[1]
In Part B, the applicant seeks the following relief: a) In terms of
s 7(2)
(c)
of PAJA, the applicant is exempted, to the extent necessary, from
the obligation to exhaust any internal remedies in terms of
Civil
Aviation Act, 2009
, read with the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2011;
b) The second respondent’s decision suspending the applicant’s
private
pilot’s licence under licence number 0[…] for a
period of six months is set aside in terms of s 8(1)
(c)
of
PAJA; c) The third respondent’s decision on appeal confirming
the decision of the second respondent to suspend the applicant’s
private pilot’s licence for a period of six months is set
aside in terms of s 8(1)
(c)
of PAJA; d) The decisions of the second and third respondents are
replaced in terms of s 8(1)(ii)
(aa)
of PAJA with the finding that the applicant has not contravened any
provisions of the
Civil Aviation Act, 2009
, and / or the Civil
Aviation Regulations, 2011; e) alternative relief, relating to the
fourth respondent; and f) costs.
[2]
Rule 6(12).
[3]
Luna
Meubel Vervaardigers (Edms) Bpk v Makin & another (t/a Makin
Furniture Manufacturers
)
1977 (4) SA 135
(W) at 137E-G.
[4]
I L &
B Marcow Caterers (Pty) Ltd v Greatermans SA Ltd & another;
Aroma Inn (Pty) Ltd v Hypermarket (Pty) Ltd & another
1981 (4) SA 108
(C) at 112H-113A.
[5]
See
East
Rock Trading 7 (Pty) Ltd and Another v Eagle Valley Granite (Pty)
Ltd and Others
[2011] ZAGPJHC 196. This is something less than the irreparable harm
that is required before the granting of interim relief,
to be
determined on a case-by-case basis: at para 7.
[6]
The respondents’ further submission regarding urgency relates
to the applicant being afforded a substantial hearing in
due course.
This aspect is considered, below.
[7]
S 7(2) of the Promotion of Administrative Justice Act, 2000 (Act 3
of 2000) provides as follows:
(a)
Subject to paragraph (c), no court or tribunal shall review an
administrative action in terms of this Act unless any internal
remedy provided for in any other law has first been exhausted.
(b)
Subject to paragraph (c), a court or tribunal must, if it is not
satisfied that any internal remedy referred to in paragraph (a)
has
been exhausted, direct that the person concerned must first exhaust
such remedy before instituting proceedings in a court
or tribunal
for judicial review in terms of this Act.
(c)
A court or tribunal may, in exceptional circumstances and on
application by the person concerned, exempt such person from the
obligation to exhaust any internal remedy if the court or tribunal
deems it in the interest of justice.
[8]
Act 13 of 2009.
[9]
S 120 of the Act.
[10]
S 122 of the Act.
[11]
S 122(7) of the Act.
[12]
S 126(6) of the Act.
[13]
Rule 15. Rules 4, 7, 8, 9 and 10 provide for various time periods
and processes, including discovery, subpoena and an appeal
hearing,
which would impact on the timeframe likely to be required to
conclude an appeal.
[14]
Koyabe
and Others v Minister for Home Affairs and Others (Lawyers for Human
Rights as Amicus Curiae)
2010 (4) SA 327
(CC) (
Koyabe
)
para 44 and following.
[15]
Koyabe
above para 45.
[16]
Koyabe
above para 46.
[17]
Koyabe
above para 48.
[18]
Nichol
and Another v Registrar of Pension Funds and Others
2008 (1) SA 383
(SCA) para 16.
[19]
See
Koyabe
above
n para 42, with reference to
Jawara
v The Gambia
(2000) AHRLR 107 (ACHPR 2000) para 31.
[20]
Koyabe
above para 39.
[21]
Earthlife
Africa (Cape Town) v Director-General: Department of Environmental
Affairs and Tourism
[2005] ZAWCHC 7
;
2005 (3) SA 156
(C) para 44.
[22]
L F
Boshoff Investments (Pty) Ltd v Cape Town Municipality; Cape Town
Municipality v L F Boshoff Investments (Pty) Ltd
1969
(2) SA 256
(C) at 267B-E.
[23]
1948 (1) SA 1186
(W) at 1189-1190.
[24]
Gool v
Minister of Justice and Another
[1955] 3 All SA 115 (C).
[25]
Setlogelo
above
at 227.
[26]
Webster
above
at 1192.
[27]
1973 (3) SA 685
(A) at 691C-G.
[28]
Part 185.02.1 of the Regulations.
[29]
Part 185.02.2 of the Regulations.
[30]
The
respondents’ primary reliance is on the following: Regulation
91.01.10 provides that ‘No person shall through
any act or
omission endanger the safety of an aircraft or person therein or
cause or permit an aircraft to endanger the safety
of any person or
property;
Regulation
91.06.32 provides in part that: (1) Except when necessary for taking
off, or landing, or except with prior written
approval of the
Director, no aircraft shall be flown over congested areas or over an
obvious open-air assembly of persons at
a height less than 1000 feet
above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 2000 feet from the
aircraft.’ Regulation 94.05.1
provides: (1) Unless granted
permission by the Director or the organisation designated for the
purpose in terms of Part 149,
as the case may be, on a case-by-case
basis, a non-type certificated aircraft may not be flown
(e)
unless unavoidable, over built-up areas and open-air assemblies of
persons except for the purpose of take-off, transit and landing.’
[31]
Clause 12 deals with managing and conducting investigations and
clause 13 with determination of a course of action.
[32]
Clause 13.9.4 of the Manual.
[33]
Clause 13.9.5 of the Manual.
[34]
This is in terms of the Flight Operations Procedure document.
[35]
S 6(2)
(e)
(iii)
of PAJA.